Infectious Disease
Question 1
A 19-year-old man has low-grade fever, tender inguinal adenopathy, and grouped vesicles on his penis. He has never had a sexually transmitted disease before, and he has a new female partner. How should this patient be managed?
a) Acyclovir cream applied to the lesions three times daily until resolution
b) No therapy because trials have failed to demonstrate efficacy in this setting
c) Acyclovir, 400 mg orally three times daily
d) Acyclovir, 5 mg/kg intravenously every 8 hours
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify and manage the genital herpes simplex infection.
The patient has primary herpes simplex virus infection. Topical agents have no role in therapy, and intravenous therapy is reserved for patients who experience complications of primary human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, such as pneumonitis, encephalitis, or hepatitis. The patient should receive some form of treatment because therapy partially relieves symptoms and accelerates healing. Newer antivirals are now available as alternatives to acyclovir. They include famciclovir, 250 mg orally three times daily or valacyclovir, 1 g orally twice daily for 7 days.
Question 2
A 26-year-old man has a penile lesion for several weeks and new swelling in the groins. On examination, a single nontender penile ulcer and bilateral palpable nontender inguinal lymph nodes are present. Rapid plasma reagin test results are negative. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Lymphogranuloma venereum
b) Chancroid
c) Primary syphilis
d) Variant herpes simplex virus infection
e) Granuloma inguinale
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify limitations of laboratory tests in primary syphilis.
In primary syphilis rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test results are positive in only 70% of the patients. Thus, a negative RPR result does not rule out the diagnosis. The five options listed are part of the differential diagnosis for the syndrome of genital ulcers with regional adenopathy. In the United States, the three most common etiologies for genital ulceration and regional lymphadenopathy are herpes simplex virus (HSV), syphilis, and chancroid. Genital ulcers associated with HSV and chancroid (infection with Haemophilus ducreyi) generally present as multiple, painful ulcers. They generally have painful regional lymphadenopathy as well. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis (typically serovars L1-3). LGV typically presents with a non-painful ulcer and tender lymphadenopathy or as a painful “buboe” formation (seen also with chancroid). From an epidemiologic standpoint, it is less common than primary syphilis and should be considered after consideration of primary syphilis. Granuloma inguinale is secondary to Klebsiella granulomatis infection and typically presents with a non-painful ulcer. These patients typically do not have lymphadenopathy, but may have painful “buboe.”
Question 3
A 44-year-old man has had a painful penile ulcer and tender inguinal lymph nodes on the right side for several weeks. He had a negative HIV test 1 year before, but had frequent encounters with prostitutes. He saw several physicians, apparently without a diagnosis. On examination, the lymph nodes are fluctuant and have a fistula with pus. Which of the following would be effective treatment?
a) Azithromycin, 1 g orally twice daily for 7 days
b) Ceftriaxone, 250 mg intramuscularly once
c) Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg orally once
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify and manage the Haemophilus ducreyi infection (a.k.a. chancroid).
The correct diagnosis is chancroid, an infection with Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid typically presents as a painful genital ulcer and tender regional lymphadenopathy. The ulcer usually has clearly demarcated borders and sometimes undermined. A
gray or yellow purulent exudate may be present over the ulcer, with a tendency to bleed when scraped. The inguinal lymphadenitis can sometimes liquefy and present as painful, fluctuant “buboes” that leak frank pus (as was seen in this patient). There is a high rate of co-infection with HIV.
gray or yellow purulent exudate may be present over the ulcer, with a tendency to bleed when scraped. The inguinal lymphadenitis can sometimes liquefy and present as painful, fluctuant “buboes” that leak frank pus (as was seen in this patient). There is a high rate of co-infection with HIV.
One intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone is the recommended regimen. Azithromycin is another option, but a single dose is sufficient, rather than a 7-day course of therapy. Ciprofloxacin is effective but needs to be given twice daily for 3 days. Finally, erythromycin can be used at a dose of 500 mg orally four times daily for 7 days.
Question 4
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office because her boyfriend was recently diagnosed with genital herpes. She is sexually active and does not use condoms. She is asymptomatic and her pelvic examination is normal. She is requesting some type of evaluation for herpes. What is the most appropriate next step?
a) Oral acyclovir for 7 to 10 days
b) Tzanck smear of the cervix
c) Glycoprotein G-based herpes simplex virus (HSV) serologies
d) HSV nucleic acid testing from blood and cervix
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify the guidelines on partner testing for genital herpes.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommended offering testing to those who want to be tested, even if they are not symptomatic. The CDC also recently advocated the use of type-specific glycoprotein G-based serologic tests for the diagnosis of genital herpes in certain circumstances, particularly in suspected cases that are culture negative. A positive herpes simplex virus type 2 antibody test is indicative of an infection with anogenital herpes at some time in the past. The antibody test may be useful in the partner evaluation, although pretest counseling is important. The test is not recommended for routine screening in the population but should be made available to anyone requesting testing.
Question 5
A 60-year-old woman is referred for a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test result. She is asymptomatic, except for mild memory loss. She recalls having syphilis as a teenager but never receiving treatment. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination shows no white blood cells, normal protein, and normal glucose; the CSF VDRL is nonreactive. How should the patient be managed next?
a) Erythromycin, 250 mg orally, four times daily for 2 weeks
b) Hospitalization and treatment with aqueous crystalline penicillin G at 12 million U intravenously daily for 14 days
c) Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million U intramuscularly (IM) once
d) Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million U IM each week for 3 weeks
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify and treat late-latent syphilis.
The patient has late-latent syphilis. This is evidenced by the fact that the patient has persistently positive nontreponemal tests, representing a previously infected patient without evidence of active disease. The recommended therapy is 3 weekly IM doses of benzathine penicillin G. In penicillin-allergic patients, doxycycline or tetracycline should be given for 4 weeks.
Question 6
Which of the following statements about secondary syphilis is false?
a) A rash is the most common clinical manifestation.
b) Erythromycin is the treatment of choice in penicillin allergic patients.
c) Up to 20% of patients have a genital lesion evident.
d) Nontreponemal test results are almost always positive.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify the important features of secondary syphilis.
Doxycycline, not erythromycin, is the treatment of choice for secondary syphilis in penicillin-allergic patients. All the other statements are correct. The rash can manifest in many different ways, and by the time it is present, nontreponemal test results are positive almost 100% of the time, making the diagnosis relatively easy, if considered.
Question 7
A 19-year-old sexually active man (HIV negative) has dysuria and urethral discharge. He has a new sexual partner. Gram stain of the discharge shows >10 white blood cells per oil immersion field. Which of the following statements is false?
a) He should be specifically tested for Chlamydia trachomatis.
b) He should be specifically tested for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
c) If the patient is unreliable for follow-up, he should be treated with antibiotics empirically.
d) This condition could be caused by herpes simplex virus.
e) Asymptomatic infection is rare.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify the features of infectious urethritis/cervicitis.
Many men and women with urethritis/mucopurulent cervicitis are minimally symptomatic or asymptomatic. Causative
agents include N. gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Ureaplasma urealyticum. If a patient is unreliable, he should be treated empirically to help prevent further spread of the infection to other sexual partners.
agents include N. gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Ureaplasma urealyticum. If a patient is unreliable, he should be treated empirically to help prevent further spread of the infection to other sexual partners.
Question 8
A 19-year-old man presents with a painful urethral discharge. He denies any history of prior sexually transmitted diseases. Gram stain of the discharge shows white blood cells with intracellular gram-negative diplococci. The next step is:
a) No treatment until cultures of the discharge are finalized
b) Ciprofloxacin, 500 mg orally once
c) Ceftriaxone, 250 mg intramuscularly (IM) once and azithromycin 1 g orally once
d) Ceftriaxone, 250 mg IM once
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify and manage gonococcal urethritis/cervicitis.
The patient has gonorrhea. Gram stain is diagnostic, so there is no need to wait for the culture results. Due to the high prevalence of quinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae, empiric ciprofloxacin use is not appropriate. The lower dose of ceftriaxone is sufficient and empiric therapy for chlamydial infection should always be used concurrently with antigonococcal therapy.
Question 9
A 35-year-old woman complains of a several-day history of malodorous vaginal discharge. On pelvic examination, a gray homogeneous discharge is present. Examination of the discharge reveals a pH of 6. Gram stain shows clue cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Trichomoniasis
b) Chlamydia trachomatis infection
c) Bacterial vaginosis
d) Yeast vulvovaginitis
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify bacterial vaginosis (BV).
Gram stain shows clue cells, which are characteristic of bacterial vaginosis. Trichomoniasis can also cause an increased vaginal pH, but does not demonstrate clue cells on the wetmount preparation. Neither of these findings is present in a vaginal yeast infections or chlamydial cervicitis.
Question 10
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of nonproductive cough and hoarseness. She reports a temperature of 100.4°F. She is not short of breath and has no chills or sweats. She has a smoking history of 20 packs per year but quit 20 years ago. She lives at home with her husband, who is asymptomatic. She has had several antibiotics in the past week, of which she comments, “I felt a little better after the clarithromycin, but not much, so my doctor changed me to cefuroxime, and I felt worse.” On examination, she appears healthy. She has a low-grade fever of 38°C, but her vital signs are otherwise normal. The physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory evaluation is notable only for a normal white blood cell count with a mild left shift. Chest radiograph reveals a subtle right-sided infiltrate. The most appropriate next step in the care of this patient would be:
a) Admission for high-dose intravenous erythromycin
b) Outpatient therapy with oral doxycycline
c) Admission for intravenous ceftriaxone
d) Outpatient therapy with oral ciprofloxacin
e) Home intravenous antibiotic therapy with piperacillin/tazobactam
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify and manage community-acquired pneumonia with features suggesting atypical pathogens.
The patient presents from community with a subacute, indolent illness and radiographic evidence of pneumonia. No mortality risk factors are present, and admission is probably not warranted. Piperacillin/tazobactam has no activity against common atypical bacterial organisms. Ciprofloxacin has poor activity against gram-positive organisms and should not be used in this setting. Correct therapeutic options include oral tetracyclines, macrolides, levofloxacin, gatifloxacin, or moxifloxacin. In this case, the hoarseness and partial response to clarithromycin raise suspicion for Chlamydia pneumoniae as a pathogen. Doxycycline is preferred in this setting.
Question 11
A 23-year-old male college student presents in late December with a 5-day history of nonproductive cough and shortness of breath. He notes that a number of fellow students have had respiratory illnesses over the past 2 months. He has recently tested HIV negative. Physical examination shows that he is in good physical condition. His temperature is 38.3°C, his heart rate is 120 beats per minute, his respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. The examination is otherwise remarkable only for a few scattered rales at the lung bases. On laboratory evaluation, he is hypoxemic with a PO2 of 76. The white blood cell count is 14,000/mm3, with a marked left shift. His hemoglobin is 8.3 g/dL, and his peripheral smear shows red blood cell fragments. Chest radiograph reveals bilateral patchy lower lobe infiltrates.
The patient deteriorates soon after admission, requiring mechanical ventilation and vasopressors. Chest radiograph
reveals progression of the infiltrates with involvement of all five lung lobes. A Swan-Ganz catheter is placed, revealing a high systemic vascular resistance and a low cardiac output.
reveals progression of the infiltrates with involvement of all five lung lobes. A Swan-Ganz catheter is placed, revealing a high systemic vascular resistance and a low cardiac output.
The most appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for this patient is:
a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 5 mg/kg intravenously (IV) every 6 hours
b) Doxycycline 100 mg IV every 12 hours
c) Piperacillin/tazobactam 3.375 g IV every 6 hours
d) Azithromycin 500 mg intravenously every day plus ceftriaxone 1 g IV every day
e) Clindamycin 900 mg IV every 8 hours plus ceftazidime 1 g IV every 8 hours
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Manage community-acquired pneumonia in a severely ill patient.
The patient is acutely and severely ill with a community-acquired process. By IDSA guidelines, the appropriate therapy consists of a combination between a macrolide or fluoroquinolone and ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or a β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor. Because he is HIV negative and acutely ill, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole would not provide adequate coverage for either atypical or serious gram-negative pathogens. Likewise, neither piperacillin-tazobactam nor the combination of clindamycin and ceftazidime would cover atypical pathogens. Intravenous doxycycline alone would not cover all likely typical bacterial pathogens. Of the provided answers, only the combination of azithromycin and ceftriaxone would treat severe pneumonia due to both Legionella and typical bacterial pathogens.
This patient presents with several clinical clues to the correct diagnosis. He presents with a nonproductive cough and low-grade fever, suggesting an atypical pathogen. His sputum Gram stain shows no predominant organism, despite a fulminant process. He has evidence of hemolytic anemia and cardiac dysfunction, illustrating the potentially severe complications of an ordinarily indolent pathogen.
Question 12
A 66-year-old man with a history of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma presents with a 2-week history of dry cough and low-grade fever in January. He has a pet parakeet, and his grandchild has a respiratory illness. His lung examination is remarkable for a few rales at the lung bases. His chest radiograph (X-ray) initially reveals faint infiltrates in both lung bases.
The patient is admitted to the hospital and levofloxacin is administered intravenously. Despite the therapy, the patient’s respiratory status worsens over the first 48 hours of hospitalization. He is admitted to the intensive care unit and requires mechanical ventilation. Subsequent chest x-ray shows reticulonodular infiltrates throughout both lung fields.
Which of the following are causes of therapy failure in community-acquired pneumonia?
a) Wrong diagnosis
b) Empyema
c) Poor adherence to the medical regimen
d) a and c
e) a, b, and c
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify reasons for treatment failure in patients with community-acquired pneumonia.
Several factors can contribute to initial antibiotic therapy failure in community-acquired pneumonia. First, one should consider the correctness of the diagnosis. A number of diagnoses may lead to pulmonary infiltrates, including noninfectious diseases such as heart failure. Host factors such as empyema, immunodeficiency, and bronchial tree obstruction may slow the response to antibiotics. It is also important to consider difficulties with the regimen itself: Is this the wrong drug or dose? Is the patient adhering to the regimen? The clinician must also place less common microbial pathogens in the differential diagnosis, as some pathogens do not respond to standard antibiotic regimens. Finally, certain pathogens, such as Legionella species and Streptococcus pneumoniae, may cause overwhelming infection that may not immediately respond to antibiotics.
In this circumstance, the patient is immunocompromised by virtue of his lymphoma. He has a pet parakeet and might have pneumonia caused by an unusual pathogen, such as Chlamydophila psittaci. He has a grandchild with a respiratory illness, but it is January, raising the question of viral pathogens such as influenza, respiratory syncytial virus, adenovirus, parainfluenza virus, and others. Given his rapid decline, bronchoscopy is likely indicated to obtain a specimen for staining and culture for a broad range of pathogens. Serology may be useful to help diagnose infection with Chlamydia species or other atypical pathogens, such as Legionella and Mycoplasma species.
Question 13
A 67-year-old woman with steroid-dependent asthma is admitted to the hospital with fever (temperature 37.9°C), cough, and myalgia. Chest radiography reveals an increase in interstitial markings bilaterally, and the polymerase chain reaction from a nasopharyngeal swab is positive for influenza A. Because of immune suppression, the patient is treated with oseltamivir. The patient experiences resolution of the fever and myalgia and improved cough over the first 2 hospital days, but fever recurs and is accompanied by a productive cough and chills on the third hospital day. On examination, the patient looks acutely ill. Her temperature is 38.5°C, pulse is 126 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 3 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 90/58 mmHg. There are coarse crackles heard at the left lung base. Chest
radiography now reveals a dense lobar infiltrate at the left base. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure in the care of this patient?
radiography now reveals a dense lobar infiltrate at the left base. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure in the care of this patient?
a) Blood cultures
b) Sputum Gram stain and culture
c) Intravenous vancomycin
d) Replace oseltamivir with amantadine
e) Intravenous linezolid
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify principles of management of acute influenza infections.
This patient, who is seemingly recovering from acute influenza A, suffers a relapse of symptoms with a more acute presentation. The primary concern is for a bacterial superinfection in the lungs. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae are important pathogens in this setting; community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) is a concern in this toxic-appearing patient. Blood and sputum studies are clearly indicated to identify a pathogen and direct therapy. Intravenous vancomycin and linezolid are therapeutic options for CA-MRSA. Given the clinical course and radiographic change, it is unlikely that a change in antiviral therapy will have an effect on the patient’s course.
Question 14
A 45-year-old man with Crohn’s disease treated with infliximab presents in December with an increasing nonproductive cough and fever over the past 2 weeks. He denies myalgia but has considerable fatigue. He is prescribed a 5-day course of oral levofloxacin without any improvement. He seeks care again for worsening symptoms. On examination, he looks chronically ill and is actively coughing without sputum production. The patient’s temperature is 37.7°C, and vital signs are otherwise normal. The lung examination is clear. A chest radiograph shows diffusely scattered small nodules.
Which measure is not appropriate in the care of this patient?
a) Protein purified derivative skin testing
b) Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage and transbronchial biopsy
c) Fungal complement fixation and immunodiffusion serology battery
d) Histoplasma urinary antigen
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae urinary antigen
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify respiratory pathogens in patients receiving tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-á inhibitors.
Therapy with TNF inhibitors such as infliximab has been associated with reactivation of tuberculosis and endemic mycoses such as histoplasmosis. In this setting, protein purified derivative skin testing, Histoplasma urinary antigen testing, and fungal serology battery are clearly indicated. Because skin and serologic testing can yield delayed or no diagnosis, bronchoscopy can be critical to obtain diagnostic specimens and direct antimicrobial therapy. The patient’s subacute illness and the radiographic pattern are less consistent with “typical” bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, and pneumococcal urinary antigen testing is not indicated for this patient.
Question 15
A 30-year-old healthy woman presents with non-bloody diarrhea that has persisted for less than 24 hours. She has nausea and abdominal cramping, but no fever or tenesmus. No recent travel is noted, and her examination is normal. You should
a) Ask her if other family members are affected
b) Check fecal leukocytes by microscopy or lactoferrin
c) Collect stools for bacterial culture and rotavirus polymerase chain reaction
d) Tell her to avoid antidiarrheal agents such as loperamide
e) Start ciprofloxacin empirically
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Identify the etiology and management of acute diarrhea.
If acute infectious diarrhea can be linked to the ingestion of a certain meal (for example in a family outbreak setting), the incubation period can be helpful for diagnosis. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have incubation periods of less than 6 hours, Clostridium perfringens and B. cereus between 6 and 24 hours, noroviruses, enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli, Vibrio, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Yersinia, Giardia, Cyclospora, Cryptosporidium between 16 and 72 hours, respectively. Certain foods are also linked to particular infections: undercooked poultry to campylobacteriosis, undercooked hamburger to shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC), seafood to Vibrio species, improperly refrigerated fried rice to B. cereus, fresh soft cheeses to Listeria monocytogenes, contaminated eggs to Salmonella species, unrefrigerated potato salad to Staphylococcus aureus (preformed enterotoxin), and undercooked pork to Yersinia enterocolitica.
The most likely cause in this patient is a viral infection. Because the illness is less than 24 hours in duration and is not associated with inflammatory features, the detection of fecal leukocytes and stool cultures are not indicated at this time. Rotavirus polymerase chain reaction should not be used in routine clinical care. Oral rehydration is the appropriate management here. Antimotility agents such as loperamide and diphenoxylate may be used here if needed because the diarrhea is not bloody. Empiric antimicrobials are indicated for moderate to severe travelers’ diarrhea, and febrile, community-acquired, inflammatory diarrhea, particularly in immunocompromised patients, unless STEC is suspected on epidemiologic grounds. Severe nosocomial
diarrhea in patients receiving systemic antibiotics or chemotherapeutic agents should also be treated empirically with metronidazole, pending the results of a Clostridium difficile toxin assay. Persistent diarrhea for more than 10 days should raise the concern of protozoal pathogens, such as Giardia and Cryptosporidium; empiric therapy with metronidazole, pending stool microscopy or immunoassay, is reasonable in this setting.
diarrhea in patients receiving systemic antibiotics or chemotherapeutic agents should also be treated empirically with metronidazole, pending the results of a Clostridium difficile toxin assay. Persistent diarrhea for more than 10 days should raise the concern of protozoal pathogens, such as Giardia and Cryptosporidium; empiric therapy with metronidazole, pending stool microscopy or immunoassay, is reasonable in this setting.
Question 16
A 22-year-old woman presents with dysuria and foul-smelling urine for 24 hours. No fever or suprapubic or flank pain is present. She had a similar episode in the past year. She uses spermicide-coated condoms and diaphragms for contraception. Her examination is normal. You should
a) Collect urine for culture
b) Order ultrasound of the urinary bladder and kidneys
c) Prescribe trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 7 days
d) Advise her to avoid vaginal spermicides
e) Advise against future self-treatment or prophylaxis
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Manage acute uncomplicated cystitis.
The microbiology of acute uncomplicated cystitis in women is predictable, so empiric antimicrobial therapy would be appropriate. Collecting urine for culture should be considered if empiric therapy fails. Ultrasound of the urinary bladder may be useful in cases with persistent symptoms to rule out the presence of a stone or diverticulum. Renal ultrasound should be considered if a clinical suspicion for upper UTI is present. First-line treatment for uncomplicated cystitis includes TMP-SMX for 3 days. Extending therapy for 7 days may be considered in patients with persistent symptoms. Other agents that are commonly used in the United States are nitrofurantoin (100 mg twice daily for 5 days) and fosfomycin (3 g in a single dose). Fluoroquinolones and β-lactams are generally efficacious agents, but the most recent Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA) guidelines recommend against using them as first-line agents given their higher rates of adverse events. The use of vaginal spermicides is a known risk factor for UTI; women with recurrent UTI should be advised to use another form of contraception. Once the diagnosis is established, antimicrobial self-treatment at the onset of dysuria and postcoital prophylaxis are reasonable options for this young woman with recurrent cystitis.
Question 17
A 20-year-old college student presents with fever, sore throat, myalgia, splenomegaly, and generalized lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is true?
a) HIV testing should be considered. Treatment is symptomatic.
b) A vaccine could have prevented this illness. Specific therapy is indicated if presenting within 48 hours.
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are likely causes. Amoxicillin remains the first-line agent.
d) Fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and absence of cough increase the likelihood of group A β-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS) infection.
e) Rhinovirus is the most common cause. No diagnostic tests are needed.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Identify the differential diagnosis for a mononucleosis-type illness.
In the appropriate setting, patients presenting with a mononucleosis-type illness should be questioned about their sexual practices because the acute retroviral syndrome has a similar presentation. HIV antibody test is usually negative during the acute illness and may require several weeks or months to become positive. An accurate diagnosis requires a plasma HIV RNA test or HIV p24 antigen detection. This has clear clinical and public health implications because a large proportion of HIV-infected people are not aware of their HIV status; thus, they may present at a later stage of disease, while continuing to transmit the infection to others. The CDC currently recommends the “opt-out” HIV screening approach, where assent is inferred unless the patient declines testing. The statement in (b) refers to a patient with influenza, an illness that, unlike infectious mononucleosis, may be preventable with a vaccine and is treatable with specific antiviral agents. The statement in (c) refers to a patient with acute sinusitis, which is not associated with splenomegaly or generalized lymphadenopathy. The statement in (d) refers to a patient with “strep throat,” a form of pharyngitis more common in children than adults and associated with certain clinical features that do not include splenomegaly or generalized lymphadenopathy. The statement in (e) could apply to a patient with nonspecific upper respiratory tract infection (common cold) or bronchitis; these illnesses are gradual in onset and, again, not associated with splenomegaly or generalized lymphadenopathy.
Question 18
A 60-year-old diabetic woman with history of varicose veins has mild fever and painful, ill-defined redness around an erosion over her tibia. Which of the following is true?
a) Blood cultures are rarely positive. Penicillin is the drug of choice.
b) Herpes simplex is in the differential diagnosis. Ask about sexual practices.
c) Hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics, MRI, and surgical consultation are warranted.
d) Initiate antimicrobial coverage for streptococci and penicillinase-producing staphylococci.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Manage a skin and soft tissue infection.
Risk factors for a soft tissue infection in this woman include the diabetes and varicose veins. The portal of entry for the causative organism is likely the erosion overlying her tibia. The ill-defined redness is more consistent with cellulitis than erysipelas. It is true that blood cultures are usually not positive in most cases of cellulitis, but treatment with penicillin would only be appropriate for erysipelas. Herpes simplex virus infection is not a consideration here, and sexual activity is not a risk factor for cellulitis. Even though one might consider admission to the hospital to initiate intravenous antimicrobial therapy and observe clinical improvement, surgical consultation would only be warranted for this case if necrotizing fasciitis is clinically or radiologically suspected. Topical antifungal therapy may be considered here only if tinea pedis is present.
Question 19
A 41-year-old female patient presents to your office for high fevers and general malaise for 1 week duration. Around 6 weeks ago, the patient went camping in Pennsylvania. She reports multiple “bug bites,” but does not recall an obvious tick bite. Over the last week, she has noticed daily fevers to 39°C. She reports some generalized malaise and fatigue, but otherwise no other significant symptoms. She denies any rash. On examination, she has a 39.2°C fever, mild hepatosplenomegaly, but no lymphadenopathy. The peripheral smear reveals direct infection of the red blood cells with a pathogen.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Histoplasmosis
b) Borreliosis
c) Babesiosis
d) Trypanosomiasis
e) Ehrlichiosis
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify human erythrocyte babesiosis.
Babesiosis is a protozoal infection with the genus Babesia, leading to a wide range of clinical manifestations, from asymptomatic to severely ill, often depending on the immune status of the host. Babesia directly infects red blood cells (RBCs), where it undergoes asexual reproduction, forming the characteristic tetrad (maltese cross appearance). Risk factors for severe illness include the following: age >50, splenectomy, immunosuppression, TNF-α inhibitor use, and co-infection with HIV. Typically, immunocompetent patients have mild non-specific symptoms, with high fever (up to 40°C) being the hallmark of the disease. Other constitutional symptoms, such as malaise, fatigue, and headache, may be seen. On examination, there can be some mild hepatosplenomegaly, but lymphadenopathy and signs of liver failure are rare. Patients with the above risk factors are prone to a more severe disease, which can manifest as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC), congestive heart failure, renal failure, and splenic infarcts.
The other conditions listed can often present with similar symptoms. Ehrlichiosis infects granulocytes and monocytes. Histoplasmosis is typically seen in the Ohio River Valley and may be phagocytized by monocytes and granulocytes, but typically does not cause infection of RBCs. Borrelia and trypanosomes may be observed in peripheral blood smears as extracellular organisms, but do not infect RBCs.
Question 20
A 19-year-old man is seen in an urgent care center. He reports dysuria for the past 2 days and admits to two sexual partners in the past 3 weeks. Physical examination reveals an otherwise healthy man with a purulent urethral discharge. A gram-stained smear of the discharge reveals intracellular gram-negative diplococci. Along with appropriate counseling and serologic testing, which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?
a) A single intramuscular dose of a long-acting antimicrobial, such as benzathine penicillin G combined with a 7-day course of doxycycline
b) A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone, 125 mg
c) A single oral dose of azithromycin, 1 g and a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone, 250 mg
d) A single oral dose of ciprofloxacin, 500 mg
e) A single intramuscular dose of cefazolin, 0.5 g, and a 7-day course of doxycycline
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the clinical presentation and treatment of gonorrhea infection.
This man most likely has gonorrhea. First-generation cephalosporins and long-acting penicillins have no place in the treatment of gonorrhea. Ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin alone would be inadequate because there is a high incidence of chlamydial infections in patients with gonorrhea. Dual antimicrobial coverage is therefore necessary. Azithromycin is no longer considered appropriate monotherapy as high rates of macrolide resistance have been encountered in the treatment of gonorrhea.
Question 21
A 40-year-old man undergoing treatment for lymphoma presents with new-onset vertigo. On further questioning, he also admits to a change in his sense of taste. Along with his prescribed medications, he is also self-medicating with Echinacea. On physical examination, he has a vesicular rash in the right external auditory canal and right-sided facial palsy.
What is the most likely etiology of the new symptoms?
What is the most likely etiology of the new symptoms?
a) Side effect of herbal medication
b) Disseminated malignancy
c) A virus often identified by Tzanck smear
d) Parvovirus infection
e) A virus often identified by heterophile antibody testing
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Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the clinical presentations of herpes zoster infection.
Immunocompromised individuals are particularly susceptible to symptomatic herpes zoster, which can result in Ramsay Hunt syndrome. Pain and vesicles appear in the external auditory canal, and there may be loss of taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The geniculate ganglion of the sensory branch of the facial nerve is involved.
Question 22
A 41-year-old man reports dull pain over the maxillary areas for the past 10 days and a yellow nasal discharge. He has tried over-the-counter nasal decongestants without relief. Physical examination shows that percussion of the teeth causes pain. You recommend the use of oxymetazoline 0.05% spray and a 10-day course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. He is seen in routine follow-up 4 months later when he explains that his symptoms did improve for a few days but soon returned. His symptoms are much the same as they were 4 months ago, but he now has a postnasal drip associated with cough. Which of the following statements relating to this patient’s condition is incorrect?