Rheumatology
Question 1
Sweet’s syndrome is often associated with which of the following?
a) Adenocarcinoma of the breast
b) Adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract
c) Pulmonary disease
d) Myocarditis
e) Leukemia
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify the association between Sweet’s syndrome and malignancy.
Sweet’s syndrome (a.k.a. febrile neutropenic dermatosis) is a rare autoimmune condition with hallmark features of high fever, tender and erythematous skin lesions (can be papules, nodules, or plaques), and the biopsy showing a neutrophilic infiltration. Peripheral neutrophilia may also be seen at times, but is not necessary for diagnosis. It is most commonly seen in female between the ages of 30 and 60 (although it has been seen in younger patients as well). The pathophysiology of Sweet’s syndrome is not completely understood, but it has been associated with some medications (most commonly the granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, but case reports with antihypertensives, antineoplastic, antibiotics, and antiepileptics, among others have been also reported), acute viral gastrointestinal or upper respiratory infections, inflammatory bowel disease, pregnancy, and some malignancies. Sweet’s syndrome is strongly associated with myelocytic or myelomonocytic leukemia. The cornerstone of therapy includes either topical, intralesional, or systemic corticosteroids.
Question 2
A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of increasing right wrist pain and associated swelling. He denies a history of prior episodes of arthritis or any antecedent trauma. His only medication is a diuretic for the treatment of hypertension. He was recently hospitalized for a transurethral prostate resection for benign prostatic hypertrophy. His older brother has been diagnosed with gout. The most useful diagnostic tests for this patient include
a) Radiography of the wrist
b) Serum urate level
c) Complete blood cell count with differential and erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) b and c
e) None is particularly useful
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify the appropriate diagnostic maneuvers for an acute monoarticular arthritis.
The major differential diagnosis for an acute monoarticular arthritis includes acute crystal disease and infection. The synovial fluid analysis with crystal analysis, gram stain, and culture are crucial for differentiating these two conditions, as their treatment is divergent. Both will have an inflammatory pattern with high polymorphonuclear leukocytes on the synovial fluid analysis; however, the acute crystal disease should have either negatively birefringent crystals (urate) or rhomboid weakly positively birefringent crystal (CPPD) on analysis. Diagnosing acute septic arthritis necessitates gram stain and culture. Radiograph of the wrist is often non-diagnostic. Elevated serum urate levels are associated with gout, but as a diagnostic test for an acute gouty arthritis, it lacks both sensitivity and specificity. Complete blood counts and inflammatory markers are nonspecific for either of these conditions.
Question 3
A 26-year-old African American woman presents with a chief complaint of foot pain. Examination reveals ankle joint arthritis. She is afebrile and otherwise symptom free. She has a documented history of sickle cell anemia. The synovial fluid reveals a white blood cell count of 18,000/mm3, with 86% neutrophils. No crystals are seen. She is treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic but experiences only minimal improvement after 3 days. Synovial cultures after 72 hours are negative. The presumptive diagnosis is
a) Gout
b) Salmonella arthritis
c) Avascular necrosis
d) Gonococcal arthritis
e) Reactive arthritis
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify the diagnostic limitations of acute gonococcal arthritis.
Seventy-two hours is not always sufficient time to observe a dramatic response to antibiotics. Whereas salmonella or
other routine bacterial infections are expected to be recognized in bacterial cultures, gonococcus is often not isolated from the joint fluid. Gout is more common in sickle cell patients, but the diagnosis of gout should not be made in this setting in the absence of visualized crystals. Avascular necrosis is commonly associated with sickle cell anemia, but does not elicit an inflammatory synovial fluid response.
other routine bacterial infections are expected to be recognized in bacterial cultures, gonococcus is often not isolated from the joint fluid. Gout is more common in sickle cell patients, but the diagnosis of gout should not be made in this setting in the absence of visualized crystals. Avascular necrosis is commonly associated with sickle cell anemia, but does not elicit an inflammatory synovial fluid response.
Question 4
A 32-year-old man reports pain in the joints and dysuria. The right fourth toe is diffusely swollen, and the right ankle and left knee are warm, with pain on range of motion. The left eye is red. Urinalysis shows 25 to 30 white blood cells/hpf and 1 to 2 red blood cells/hpf. Urine culture and urethral swab for gonococcal infection are both negative. What is the diagnosis?
a) Acute gout
b) Adult-onset Still’s disease
c) Reactive arthritis (a.k.a. Reiter’s syndrome)
d) Polymyalgia rheumatica
e) Acute rheumatic fever
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify the clinical manifestations of acute reactive arthritis (a.k.a. Reiter’s syndrome).
The diffusely swollen toe likely represents a sausage digit, suggesting that the illness is likely to be a spondyloarthropathy. The triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and sterile urethritis is diagnostic of reactive arthritis (a.k.a. Reiter’s syndrome). The treating physicians wisely did appropriate cultures to rule out a disseminated gonococcal infection, which can also cause arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. Reactive arthritis is classically a post-infectious complication, most commonly after acute infectious gastroenteritis or colitis.
Question 5
A 67-year-old man complains of gradually worsening knee pain for 5 years. He now can walk only 50 m before stopping, due to the pain. Morning stiffness is 20 minutes. The right knee is cool with moderate crepitus, a small effusion, and range of motion from 5 to 90 degrees. On weight bearing, he has a moderate varus deformity. What is your plan?
a) Check baseline hepatic transaminases and start methotrexate
b) Administer a trial of prednisone 20 mg/day for 1 week
c) Check erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serum rheumatoid factor
d) Arthrocentesis to rule out gout
e) Order radiographs and refer to orthopedics
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify the appropriate workup and management for osteoarthritis.
The history and examination suggest a gradual deterioration of the knee without the signs and symptoms of an inflammatory process. The typical history and physical examination are seen, notable for gradually worsening of knee pain, minimal morning stiffness, non-inflammatory joint examination, with crepitus, varus deformity on weight bearing, and limited range of motion. This is sufficient to make a diagnosis of osteoarthritis (OA). No further diagnostic workup is necessary given the chronicity of a monoarticular arthritis makes an acute inflammatory arthropathy, such as gout or RA, unlikely. Because the patient can only walk 50 m at a time and has a marked loss of the knee range of motion, one can conclude that the OA is rather advanced and the quality of life significantly diminished. OA is a progressive condition, and while systemic anti-inflammatories and intra-articular corticosteroids may be helpful initially, surgery is probably inevitable. It would be reasonable to proceed with the orthopedic consultation.
Question 6
A 35-year-old woman is admitted for dyspnea. On examination, she has decreased breath sounds at the left lung base, and synovial thickening in her metacarpal phalangeals, proximal interphalangeals, wrists, and ankles. The olecranon bursa is diffusely swollen with embedded nodules. Her laboratory results are hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL, platelets 545 × 109/L, erythrocyte sedimentation rate 102 mm/hr C-reactive protein 7.4, antinuclear antibodies + 1:160, and rheumatoid factor 168 IU/mL (normal 0 to 20). A chest radiograph shows left pleural effusion. The thoracentesis reveals an exudative fluid, with pH 7.38, and glucose 24 mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) Bacterial endocarditis with empyema
c) Adult-onset Still’s disease
d) Lyme carditis
e) Rheumatoid arthritis
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify the extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis.
The joint examination suggests a polyarticular inflammatory arthritis. The swollen olecranon bursa with embedded nodules is typical of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Gout can cause olecranon bursitis with embedded tophi, but polyarticular tophaceous gout would be uncommon in a 35-year-old woman. Evidence suggests an acute phase response, further suggesting the presence of a systemic inflammatory disease. Patients with seropositive RA are at risk for extra-articular manifestations of the disease, including rheumatoid nodules and pleuropericarditis. A positive antinuclear antibody test is not unusual in RA and does not, by itself, suggest the presence of lupus. The exudative pleural effusion with a low glucose is typical of RA. Although bacterial endocarditis can present as a systemic inflammatory illness with arthritis and a positive rheumatoid factor, the normal pH of the pleural fluid suggests that the low glucose is not caused by an empyema.
Question 7
A 58-year-old diabetic woman reports pain with the use of the hands. Examination reveals bony enlargement of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints but no synovial thickening. Laboratory evaluation reveals an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 22 mm/hour. Radiographs reveal joint space narrowing at the MCP and proximal interphalangeal joints, with osteophytes on the radial aspect of the metacarpal heads. Patient is also noted to have elevated hepatic transaminases on labs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Primary osteoarthritis
b) Hemochromatosis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Hepatitis C with cryoglobulinemia
e) Sarcoidosis
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify secondary osteoarthritis secondary to hemochromatosis.
The physical examination and radiographs suggest osteoarthritis of the MCP joints, where cartilage loss from aging alone would be unusual. Typically, patients suffering from primary osteoarthritis with MCP and PIP involvement have other joint involvement as well. The radiographic findings are typical of hemochromatosis. The diabetes mellitus and elevated transaminases may be other manifestations of hemochromatosis.
Question 8
A 28-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of fatigue; patchy hair loss; Raynaud’s phenomenon; and joint stiffness, pain, and swelling in the small joints of the hands, wrists, elbows, and knees. Your examination reveals normal vital signs, several shallow oral ulcers, frontal hair loss, and synovitis at the proximal interphalangeals, metacarpal phalangeals, and wrist joints. The most important test to obtain at this point is
a) Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies
b) Anti-single-stranded DNA antibodies
c) Anti-Smith antibody
d) Microscopic examination of the urinalysis
e) Rheumatoid factor
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify the urgent workup in a patient with acute inflammatory arthropathy.
This patient has nonspecific symptoms with Raynaud’s phenomenon, inflammatory arthropathy, alopecia, and oral ulcers. This is concerning for an acute systemic vasculitis. Diagnosing the condition, while important, will not change the management acutely. The most important test would involve looking for acute glomerulonephritis, which would necessitate urgent admission and immunosuppression to preserve the renal function.
Question 9
A 48-year-old man has been followed for gradually progressive skin thickening, which began in the hands and spread centrally to now extend to the upper arms, trunk, and face. He has been maintained on calcium channel blockers for Raynaud’s phenomenon, although his borderline low blood pressure has not allowed optimal dosing of the medicine for the vasospasm. He presents for a routine visit with increasing fatigue, some exertional shortness of breath, and a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. Your first action is
a) Arrange for pulmonary function testing to be done
b) Increase the calcium channel blocker
c) Order complete blood count (CBC) with peripheral smear and serum creatinine, and institute treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
d) Order CBC with peripheral smear and serum creatinine, and institute treatment with D-penicillamine
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify the management of scleroderma renal crisis.
This is scleroderma renal crisis, a true medical emergency.
Patient has evidence of underlying systemic sclerosis, with skin thickening and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Scleroderma renal crisis is evidenced by the hypertension and progressively worsening renal function. Symptoms often include exertional dyspnea and worsening fatigue. Management of scleroderma renal crisis is centered around timely administration of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI).
Question 10
Measures of lupus disease activity include all but
a) Anti-double-stranded DNA antibody levels
b) Antinuclear antibody levels
c) C3 (third component of complement)
d) C4 (fourth component of complement)
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify the role of laboratory tests in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Antibody testing is a large part of both the diagnosis and the prognosis of systemic lupus. Antinuclear antibody is a highly sensitive test for the diagnosis of SLE. The antinuclear antibody, however, does not reliably fluctuate with disease activity. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibody level is both a test confirmatory for SLE and also directly related to disease activity. SLE is a complement deposition disease, and C3 and C4 are inversely related to the disease activity of SLE.
CASE PRESENTATION FOR QUESTIONS 11 TO 14
A 39-year-old woman presents to your office with concerns that she may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) because her younger sister has been recently diagnosed with the condition by another physician. Your patient describes fatigue, hair loss in the comb but no patchy “bald spots,” a weight gain of 20 lb in the past 6 months, and achy joints and muscles. She feels weak and reports shortness of breath with minimal exertion (after climbing one flight of stairs). Her past medical history reveals Hashimoto’s thyroiditis diagnosed 6 years ago, and she has been on thyroxine since then, although she has not had follow-up for that condition in more than a year. She also has hypercholesterolemia and takes pravastatin. Her social history reveals cigarette smoking, one pack per day, which she explains helps her defray the stress of her job (she works full time in a family-owned restaurant as the business manager, shopper, and part-time cook). The family history is notable for her father having committed suicide after a long struggle with depression. Her mother has thyroid disease and rheumatoid arthritis; her sister has recently diagnosed SLE, and her twin teenage sons are healthy, but have recently been on a brief detention from school after being caught drinking alcohol on the school premises. On review of systems, she denies Raynaud’s phenomenon, hematuria, or pleurisy, but reports occasional painful mouth ulcers, dry mouth and dry eyes, trouble sleeping, and irregular and heavy menses.
Your examination reveals a blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg, a regular pulse of 90 beats/minute, and no fever. Weight is 100 kg. Skin examination shows mild eczema on the hands, with dry skin. The oral mucosa and hair density on the scalp both appear unremarkable. The eyes are moist, and Schirmer’s test documents 14 mm wetting in both eyes. No enlargement of the thyroid, cervical lymph nodes, or major salivary glands is present. The chest and abdominal examinations are normal. The musculoskeletal examination reveals full strength in the distal muscle groups, but “breakaway” weakness proximally, with the patient complaining of soreness in the muscles on manual resistive testing. Tenderness is noted on palpation of the proximal interphalangeals, metacarpal phalangeals, and wrist joints, without distinct synovitis. The articular range of motion is normal throughout, with the patient stating that the shoulders, neck, and hips feel achy during these maneuvers. The patient has tenderness to soft tissue palpation at 12 tender points.
Question 11
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Stress may be playing a significant role in this patient’s presenting complaints.
b) A positive antinuclear antibody test will help establish a diagnosis of system lupus erythematosus in this patient.
c) Antibodies to SSA (Ro) and SSB (La) are likely to be present.
d) A normal creatine phosphokinase test would rule out statin-related myopathy.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Differentiate historical and physical examination findings of SLE and fibromyalgia.
This patient presents, as many do, with nonspecific complaints and few objective findings. Even the manual resistive testing results are subjective to a degree because they depend on the patient effort, which is determined in part by patient pain. The physician must consider a differential diagnosis that includes anemia (from heavy menses), hypothyroidism, statin-induced myopathy (which may occur with a normal creatine phosphokinase test), and fibromyalgia (as suggested by the poor sleep, tender points, and stressful family/social situation). Other etiologies to consider include depression, smoking-related pulmonary disease, idiopathic inflammatory myopathies, and other disorders, the workup for which will be guided by the first battery of test results.
Question 12
The least useful test on this visit would be
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
b) Creatine phosphokinase
c) Complete blood count
d) Antinuclear antibody
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify the role of laboratory tests in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Although the patient is naturally concerned about SLE, she does not display any objective findings that would suggest this illness. An antinuclear antibody (ANA) test will not be helpful at this time because the patient might well have a positive ANA related to her Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and as a relative of someone with SLE. The diagnosis of SLE is made based on the combination of laboratory work and history and physical examination (PE) findings. With the lack of historical and PE findings, the patient is more likely to have a false-positive elevation of anti-nuclear antibody than a real elevation of anti-nuclear antibody associated with SLE. Likewise, with the lack of objective findings, SSA and SSB autoantibodies are unlikely to be positive.
Question 13
A treatment plan at the end of the first visit (before laboratory data are available) would reasonably include which of the following?
a) Addition of prednisone, 5 to 10 mg/day
b) Discontinuation of pravastatin
c) Decrease in thyroxine dose
d) Addition of hydroxychloroquine, 200 mg twice a day
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Manage nonspecific complaints associated with myalgias.
Treating a patient with multiple nonspecific complaints requires a graded approach with frequent follow-up to gauge the effectiveness of interventions. On the initial visit, counseling for stress reduction, smoking cessation, and weight loss would be in order. A pravastatin “drug holiday” would determine whether the myalgias and weakness are related to a statin side effect. After these interventions, one would consider additional testing or medications. There is no role for decreasing the thyroxine dosing without an objective evidence of hyperthyroidism. There is no immediate indication for corticosteroids or hydroxychloroquine as well.
Question 14
Symptoms and signs that should lead to consideration of an underlying systemic vasculitis include
a) Mononeuritis multiplex
b) Fever of unknown origin
c) Digital ischemia
d) Red blood cell casts in the urine
e) All of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify common clinical features of systemic vasculitis.
The diagnosis of vasculitis begins with a clinical suspicion. There are relatively few findings of high diagnostic specificity for systemic vasculitis, but suspicion should mount in the presence of presumptive signs or “red flags” for vasculitis. These include fever of unknown origin with constitutional symptoms; unexplained multisystem organ disease; unexplained inflammatory arthritis; unexplained myalgias; a suspicious rash, in particular palpable purpura; peripheral neuropathies, especially mononeuritis multiplex; unexplained end-organ ischemia, including cardiac, central nervous system, and gastrointestinal; and glomerulonephritis. Although none of these findings is specific for systemic vasculitis, the presence of any one or more should lead to an increasing suspicion of the disease.
Question 15
A 50-year-old man was admitted with a 3-month history of fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and hypertension. A detailed workup for fever of unknown origin was unrevealing. Pertinent physical findings included a blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg, livedo reticularis on the legs, foot drop on the left, and absent pin-prick sensation in the lower legs. Laboratory study results included an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 100 mm/hour, a creatinine level 2.2 mg/dL, microscopic hematuria, and an aspartate transaminase level twice the upper limit of normal.
Polyarteritis nodosa is suspected. After consideration of the diagnostic yield and risks, the logical next step would be
a) Skin biopsy
b) Percutaneous renal biopsy to demonstrate vasculitis of extraglomerular vessels
c) Abdominal angiography
d) Sural nerve biopsy
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify the diagnostic workup for polyarteritis nodosa.
This patient presents with a clinical picture highly suspicious for systemic vasculitis, in particular, polyarteritis nodosa (PAN). Each diagnostic test outlined in the question should be considered in terms of sensitivity, specificity, and risk. A skin biopsy is sensitive but nonspecific because vasculitis of the skin can be caused by so many different conditions. On occasion, a nodular subcutaneous lesion may have characteristic features. Palpable purpura is less specific, and leukocytoclastic vasculitis may occur in many conditions. Percutaneous renal biopsy in this setting is insensitive for demonstrating vasculitis of the extraglomerular vessels and may be risky because PAN can cause microaneurysm formation. Abdominal angiography has increased sensitivity, but in the presence of severe hypertension and azotemia, it carries unacceptable risks. The sural nerve biopsy, although somewhat morbid and invasive, has an increasing diagnostic yield (>60%), particularly in the presence of objective neurologic signs and symptoms.
Question 16
The differential diagnosis for the rash shown includes
a) Drug-associated vasculitis
b) Vasculitis with malignancy
c) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
d) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
e) a and b
f) All of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is f.
Objective: Identify the differential diagnosis for a palpable purpura.
The rash shown is a palpable purpura. It is highly specific for small-vessel cutaneous vasculitis but is unrevealing of an underlying nosologic diagnosis. Drug-associated vasculitis is an extremely common cause of small-vessel vasculitis. Vasculitis associated with malignancies is most frequently found in the setting of an underlying lymphoproliferative disease. A small-vessel vasculitis such as this would be characteristic. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is characterized not only by such a rash but also by the presence of abdominal pain and glomerulonephritis. It is most frequently seen in children but may also be seen in adults. Subacute bacterial endocarditis has a variety of extracardiac complications, the majority of which are mediated by immune complexes. A small-vessel vasculitis would not be unusual in subacute bacterial endocarditis, although it is rare for this to be the dominant and presenting finding of the disorder. Many other conditions can be seen with this type of rash, including a variety of connective tissue diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, system lupus erythematosus), other types of infections, cryoglobulinemia secondary to hepatitis C virus infection, and a variety of miscellaneous systemic diseases.
Question 17
The following is true about the antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) test:
a) cANCA representing antibodies to PR-3 is highly correlated with a diagnosis of Wegener’s granulomatosis (WG)
b) pANCA by immunofluorescence is sufficient for a diagnosis of WG or microscopic polyangiitis
c) A rise in ANCA titers alone should prompt an escalation of immunosuppressive therapy
d) a and b
e) a, b, and c
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Identify the role of ANCA testing in the diagnosis and prognosis of systemic vasculitis.
ANCA testing has been a step forward in the diagnostic process for certain forms of systemic vasculitis. The test is generally performed by immunofluorescence, but should also be confirmed by antigen-specific assays. In the majority of cases, an immunofluorescent pattern of cANCA is associated with antibodies to the neutrophil enzyme PR-3. It is highly correlated with the diagnosis of WG, being more than 80% sensitive and more than 95% specific, in the presence of an active, untreated, and widespread disease. pANCA by immunofluorescence, however, is not only less sensitive for the diagnosis of WG (present in only a small percentage of cases) but also relatively nonspecific. The pANCA pattern can be mimicked by a variety of antibodies, including ANA. The antibodies of interest in the diagnosis of systemic vasculitis responsible for the pANCA pattern of immunofluorescence are those directed against myeloperoxidase, another neutrophil enzyme. ANCA test results by immunofluorescence should always be confirmed by an antigen-specific assay. Finally, although some studies have suggested that ANCA levels are higher in those patients with active disease, this is not useful at the level of the individual patient. ANCA titers alone are not useful to assess disease activity and should not in and of themselves be used as a justification for the modification of therapy. A clinical evaluation of end-organ damage is still the “gold standard” for determining modifications of therapy.
Question 18
Which of the following statements about cryoglobulinemic vasculitis is correct?
a) The most common clinical finding is a vasculitic rash.
b) If the cryoglobulin is composed only of a monoclonal immunoglobulin, it is generally associated with an underlying malignancy.
c) The most common associated condition is an underlying infection with hepatitis B virus.
d) a and b
e) a, b, and c
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify the clinical features of cryoglobulinemic vasculitis.
Cryoglobulinemia and cryoglobulinemic vasculitis result from immunoglobulins and other proteins that precipitate from serum at temperatures lower than 37°C. Cryoglobulins are characterized on the basis of their content as type I (monoclonal), type II (mixed or monoclonal), or type III (polyclonal). The vast majority of cases of mixed cryoglobulinemia are associated with an underlying hepatitis C virus infection.
Patients with cryoglobulinemia from any underlying cause may have a variety of end-organ manifestations. A small-vessel vasculitis, most often manifesting as a palpable purpura, is the most frequent finding. Arthralgia and arthritis are also common. With considerable frequency, patients
also have glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, and a variety of other complications.
also have glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, and a variety of other complications.
Question 19
A 56-year-old overweight woman with radiographic osteoarthritis of the right knee presents with the chief complaint of increasing, limiting knee pain, most notable when rising from a chair or toilet, while walking up stairs, and in bed at night. Examination reveals valgus deformity with walking, minimal cool-knee effusions, and tenderness to palpation (which mimics the pain) at the medial aspect of the joint, approximately 2 inches distal to the joint line. You suggest