Nephrology and Hypertension
Question 1
A 44-year-old man reports intermittent gross hematuria. He is very concerned about his health following the recent death of his younger brother from a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Family history is remarkable for kidney disease. On examination, he is hypertensive with a mitral regurgitation murmur. No rash or skin lesions are found. Urinalysis shows more than 25 red blood cells but no white blood cells, casts, protein, or stones. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 31 mg/dL and creatinine is 2 mg/dL. Of the following tests, which is most likely to be helpful in diagnosis?
a) 24-Hour urine collection for protein
b) Plasma immunoglobulin A levels
c) Renal ultrasound
d) Total and C3 complement levels
e) Renal biopsy
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Diagnose polycystic kidney disease (PKD).
This patient has adult PKD. In PKD, thin-walled spherical cysts develop in the cortex and medulla of both kidneys from birth. The cysts range from millimeters to centimeters in diameter and are usually visible on ultrasonography or computed tomography (CT) by 25 years of age. Renal ultrasound is the diagnostic method of choice for screening individuals at risk. Sensitivity is >85% in those from 20 to 30 years of age. Although proteinuria is common in PKD, it rarely exceeds 2 g/day. Immunoglobulin A nephropathy may present with hematuria but is usually associated with erythrocyte casts and glomerulonephritis. Complement levels are normal in PKD and have no role in the diagnosis of this disorder. Renal biopsy is not necessary for the diagnosis.
Question 2
A 50-year-old woman presents with chronic elevation in blood pressure (BP). Which of the following clinical findings is/are suggestive of renovascular hypertension?
a) Systolic/diastolic epigastric bruit
b) Refractory hypertension
c) Gradual onset of hypertension at age 45
d) Choices a and b
e) Choices a, b, and c
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Recognize features suggestive of renovascular hypertension.
An epigastric bruit with both systolic and diastolic components is suggestive of renal artery stenosis, which if hemodynamically significant may manifest as renovascular hypertension. This disorder may present as refractory (resistant) hypertension. Abrupt onset of hypertension as well as onset prior to age 30 years or after age 55 years is suggestive of renovascular hypertension. Conversely, gradual onset of hypertension during middle age is typical of essential or primary hypertension.
Question 3
A 60-year-old man is referred by his primary care physician to the emergency department for a severe elevation in BP. He denies any symptoms. The office BP was 206/110 mmHg, and on presentation to the emergency department, it has now increased to 212/116 mmHg with a heart rate of 84 beats/minute. He has been prescribed amlodipine, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide in the past but ran out of all medications 1 week prior. Physical examination is unremarkable. Serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL, potassium is 4.1 mEq/L, and urinalysis is normal. What is the most appropriate management?
a) Measure 24-hour urine catecholamines and metanephrines
b) Resume the same antihypertensive medications, counsel on the importance of adherence, and schedule a follow-up office appointment with the primary physician
c) Clonidine 0.1 mg orally every 30 to 60 minutes until BP is <180/110 mmHg, then proceed as described in choice b
d) Prescribe new regimen of minoxidil 5 mg twice daily and arrange follow-up with the primary physician
e) Labetalol intravenously to achieve a 25% reduction in BP within 3 hours, then proceed as in choice b
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Identify severe hypertension without crisis and manage appropriately.
Acute lowering of BP in this instance has not been shown to be of benefit, and there may be risks attributable to
hypotension and hypoperfusion. There are no particular features of pheochromocytoma to warrant measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines. In this case, the cause of the elevated BP is due to stopping medications, and a change in medications is not indicated.
hypotension and hypoperfusion. There are no particular features of pheochromocytoma to warrant measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines. In this case, the cause of the elevated BP is due to stopping medications, and a change in medications is not indicated.
Question 4
You are evaluating a 74-year-old man for secondary causes of hypertension due to a BP of 164/74 mmHg despite a regimen consisting of chlorthalidone 25 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, doxazosin 4 mg daily, and metoprolol 100 mg twice daily as well as strict adherence to a low-salt diet. Laboratory testing while on this regimen are as follows:
Serum potassium: 3.5 mEq/L
Serum creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
Supine plasma renin activity: 0.8 µg/L per hour (0.5 to 1.8)
Supine plasma aldosterone: 37.1 ng/L (4.5 to 35.4)
Urinalysis: Normal
Which is the best next step to evaluate for primary aldosteronism?
a) Hold diuretic, advise the patient to add one teaspoon of salt to the daily diet for 5 days, and then collect a 24-hour urine sample for creatinine, sodium, and aldosterone
b) Adrenal CT
c) Adrenal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d) Adrenal vein sampling
e) Iodine-131 metaiodobenzylguanidine iothalamate scan
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Recognize that the essential feature of primary aldosteronism is elevated and inappropriate aldosterone.
Prior to imaging, it is important to establish whether the mildly elevated aldosterone may be secondary, particularly as a result of dietary salt restriction combined with a diuretic. Although measurement of renin and aldosterone in the blood may be a useful screening test, elevated aldosterone in a 24-hour urine sample during a time of salt loading provides strong evidence for primary aldosteronism. Adrenal vein sampling at this point would present risk and should not be considered prior to demonstrating an elevated and inappropriate aldosterone level.
Question 5
You are evaluating a 62-year-old woman with a history of missed office visits and erratic behavior. She presents to your office after a brief hospitalization for a hypertensive crisis. Prior to hospitalization, the patient had been prescribed the following regimen for her hypertension:
Felodipine 10 mg once daily
Atenolol 50 mg once daily
Clonidine 0.2 mg twice daily
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg once daily
She presented to the emergency department with headache. BP was 220/126 mmHg, heart rate was 120 beats/minute, and weight was 59 kg. She was treated with intravenous labetalol and then discharged on the following regimen:
Metoprolol 50 mg twice daily
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily
Amlodipine 5 mg daily
In your office today, she reports feeling well. BP is 184/98 mmHg; heart rate, 84; weight, 85 kg.
On follow-up, you are reviewing results from lab tests (24-hour urine studies) performed in the hospital:
Urine creatinine: 0.8 g/24 hour
Urine total epinephrine + norepinephrine: 262 µg (26 to 121 µg/24 hours)
Among the choices listed, which is the best next step to evaluate further for the possibility of pheochromocytoma?
a) Repeat 24-hour urine
b) Iodine-131 metaiodobenzylguanidine iothalamate scan
c) Adrenal CT
d) Adrenal MRI
e) Clonidine suppression test
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Recognize factors that may lead to elevated catecholamine levels in the absence of pheochromocytoma.
In this case, the mildly elevated catecholamines may be due to a rebound effect from stopping clonidine; given her history, poor adherence to medications should be strongly suspected. Another possible reason for the elevated catecholamines is a false-positive test due to analytical interference from labetalol. Regardless, pheochromocytoma is not strongly suggested from the above information, and imaging is not warranted prior to biochemical confirmation. Repeat testing for catecholamines as well as metanephrines is in order; consider a clonidine suppression test only if these results are equivocal.
Question 6
A 52-year-old man with a 20-year history of cigarette smoking is admitted to the hospital because of cough and weakness. On admission, his serum electrolytes reveal a serum sodium concentration of 112 mEq/L; potassium, 4.5 mEq/L; chloride, 80 mEq/L; and , 26 mEq/L. The BUN was 8 mg/dL; serum creatinine, 0.8 mg/dL; and serum uric acid, 3.0 mg/dL.
These data are most consistent with which of the following?
a) Addison disease
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Cirrhosis with ascites
d) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Recognize the clinical and laboratory features of SIADH.
The hyponatremia and normal renal function (normal BUN and serum creatinine) in conjunction with a low serum uric acid level all suggest SIADH. SIADH is also associated with low uric acid levels. The long history of cigarette smoking and cough suggest the possibility of a lung cancer, well known to be associated with SIADH. No evidence of congestive heart failure or cirrhosis with ascites is described on the physical examination. Although the values for sodium, chloride, and potassium concentration are consistent with adrenal insufficiency, one would expect hyponatremia of this magnitude due to adrenal insufficiency to have clinical and biochemical evidence of extracellular fluid (ECF) volume contraction—that is, a higher BUN, possibly a higher serum creatinine level (depending on the patient’s muscle mass), and a higher serum uric acid level.
Question 7
A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a serum sodium concentration of 115 mEq/L. Physical examination reveals a supine BP of 120/80 mmHg and a standing BP of 90/60 mmHg. The skin turgor is diminished.
Which one of the following is the best treatment for this man’s hyponatremia?
a) Restriction of free water
b) Restriction of salt and water
c) Administration of normal saline
d) Treatment of the hyponatremia with demeclocycline
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Recognize hyponatremia related to volume contraction.
This patient has obvious physical findings of ECF volume contraction (orthostatic hypotension and diminished skin turgor). The proper treatment is to administer ECF (i.e., normal saline). Restriction of salt and water is obviously inappropriate for a patient who requires volume expansion. Although hyponatremic, the restriction of free water would only aggravate the hemodynamic abnormalities present. Consideration of demeclocycline should be reserved for patients with evidence of chronic SIADH, a condition that cannot be diagnosed in the setting of obvious ECF volume contraction.
Question 8
A 55-year-old white man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic nephropathy presents to the emergency department for evaluation of malaise and fatigue. He had previously been healthy and recently started on metformin to control his diabetes. His laboratory work reveals the following:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 5.5 mEq/L
Cl–: 104 mEq/L
Glucose: 180 mg/dL
BUN: 56 mg/dL
Creatinine: 3.0 mg/dL
Arterial pH: 7.31
PCO2: 28 mmHg
Urine ketones: Trace+
Lactate: 10 mEq/L
Serum osmolality: 315 mOsm/L
Urinalysis: No crystals
Which of the following is the most likely scenario?
a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
b) Proximal renal tubular acidosis (RTA)
c) Metformin-induced lactic acidosis
d) Ethylene glycol intoxication
e) Isopropanol ingestion
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand a systemic approach to acid-base disturbances.
The approach to all acid-base questions should involve the following steps:
1. Are the data internally consistent?
= 24 × 28/14 = 48 nEq/L.
The pH corresponding to this is ˜7.32, which is very close to the measured pH. Thus, the data are internally consistent.
2. Is the primary disturbance acidosis or alkalosis?
The pH is <7.35; therefore, the patient is acidemic, and the primary disturbance is an acidosis.
3. Is the primary disturbance metabolic or respiratory?
PCO2 is 28, which is consistent with a respiratory alkalosis. We therefore conclude that respiratory response is likely compensatory and that the primary disturbance is a metabolic acidosis.
4. Is the compensation adequate?
For metabolic acidosis, use the Winter formula to estimate the appropriate PCO2:
This is within 2 of the measured PCO2, so the respiratory compensation is adequate.
5. What is the anion gap (AG)?
The AG is calculated as Na+ – (Cl– + ) = 140 – 118 = 22. The “normal” AG may vary based on the clinical laboratory, but a typical AG is ˜12. Therefore, there is a wide AG metabolic acidosis, which prompts the clinician to consider a different set of diagnoses. Further testing reveals that lactic acidosis is present. Although trace ketones
are present, the glucose is only mildly elevated, and diabetic ketoacidosis is less likely given the more impressive elevation of serum lactate. The patient also has renal insufficiency, which would be a risk factor for the development of lactic acidosis during treatment with metformin. Isopropanol ingestion often produces a ketosis but would not cause an elevated AG. Ethylene glycol ingestion could produce a similar scenario (including the presence of lactic acidosis). However, it is also associated with an elevated osmolar gap and the presence of urinary calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals. Detection of lactic acidosis should prompt the clinician to determine the cause such as tissue hypoperfusion, medications (e.g., metformin, linezolid, stavudine, and didanosine), or toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol, or salicylate). This case is not consistent with an RTA because of the presence of a wide AG.
are present, the glucose is only mildly elevated, and diabetic ketoacidosis is less likely given the more impressive elevation of serum lactate. The patient also has renal insufficiency, which would be a risk factor for the development of lactic acidosis during treatment with metformin. Isopropanol ingestion often produces a ketosis but would not cause an elevated AG. Ethylene glycol ingestion could produce a similar scenario (including the presence of lactic acidosis). However, it is also associated with an elevated osmolar gap and the presence of urinary calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals. Detection of lactic acidosis should prompt the clinician to determine the cause such as tissue hypoperfusion, medications (e.g., metformin, linezolid, stavudine, and didanosine), or toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol, or salicylate). This case is not consistent with an RTA because of the presence of a wide AG.
6. If there is an AG, calculate the ΔAG.
The AG in this case was 22 (normal AG = 12 but may vary by the clinical laboratory), or a ΔAG of 10. If we assume that the ΔAG provides an estimate of the acid load and that 1 mEq/L of acid reduces [] by 1 mEq/L, then this can be added back to the actual [] (14 mEq/L) to estimate the starting concentration of []. In this case, the [] is estimated to be 24 mEq/L before the acidosis occurred.
Question 9
A 47-year-old woman with advanced amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is evaluated in the clinic. She has recently been stable with no major changes in medical conditions. She is receiving magnesium, potassium, and supplementation. She has advanced muscle weakness and requires a home mechanical ventilator:
Na+: 142 mEq/L
K+: 3.2 mEq/L
Cl–: 118 mEq/L
Glucose: 96 mg/dL
BUN: 6 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.2 mg/dL
Arterial pH: 7.49
PCO2: 16 mmHg
Urine Na+: 50 mEq/L
Urine K+: 20 mEq/L
Urine Cl–: 10 mEq/L
The single most appropriate treatment for this patient is
b) Increase oral potassium supplementation
c) Increase magnesium supplementation
d) Increase the respiratory rate (minute ventilation) setting on the ventilator
e) Decrease the respiratory rate (minute ventilation) setting on the ventilator
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Understand a systemic approach to acid-base disturbances.
The approach to all acid-base questions should involve the following steps:
1. Are the data internally consistent?
2. Is the primary disturbance acidosis or alkalosis?
3. Is the primary disturbance metabolic or respiratory?
4. Is the compensation adequate?
5. What is AG?
6. If there is an AG, calculate the ΔAG.
A breakdown of this case is as follows:
1. The data are internally consistent (calculated H+ = 32, corresponding to pH ˜7.48).
2. Alkalosis.
3. Respiratory alkalosis. There is a metabolic acidosis, which could be compensatory.
4. Compensation is adequate, assuming the process is chronic.
Using the formula for chronic respiratory alkalosis: ↓Δ[] = 5 × ΔPCO2/10, we expect [] to decrease by 12, which matches the observed change exactly.
5. AG is normal (10).
6. Because the AG is normal, ΔAG cannot be calculated.
Further discussion: If assessment of the [] were performed without an AG, it might be concluded that treatment with oral supplementation would be appropriate. This would lead to further renal wasting, which would obligate an equal loss of cations (e.g., K+, Mg2+, Ca2+) to maintain electroneutrality, further exacerbating the hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia. Although supplementation with oral potassium or magnesium may be warranted, it does not address the underlying problem. In this case, the respiratory set rate was decreased (gradually over a period of weeks), and , potassium, and magnesium supplementation were gradually tapered. The urinary AG is positive in this case due to renal loss to compensate for the respiratory alkalosis, but this does not diagnose an RTA, as the primary process is not an acidosis. The very low creatinine provides a clue to the low muscle mass of this patient and may suggest that her metabolic demand and thus the need for respiratory excretion of CO2 may not be as high as a normal patient.
Question 10
A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after a family member found her comatose at home. She had recently told her boyfriend that she would commit suicide if he broke up with her. The following laboratory values were obtained:
Na+: 137 mEq/L
K+: 3.6 mEq/L
Cl–: 100 mEq/L
Glucose: 96 mg/dL
BUN: 15 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
Arterial pH: 7.39
PCO2: 27 mmHg
Urine drug screen: Pending
Serum drug screen: Pending
Which of the following substances would produce this clinical scenario?
a) Oxazepam
b) Aspirin
c) Acetaminophen
d) Methanol
e) Ethylene glycol
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand a systemic approach to acid-base disturbances.
The approach to all acid-base questions should involve the following steps:
1. Are the data internally consistent?
2. Is the primary disturbance acidosis or alkalosis?
3. Is the primary disturbance metabolic or respiratory?
4. Is the compensation adequate?
5. What is AG?
6. If there is an AG, calculate the ΔAG.
A breakdown of this case is as follows:
1. Data are internally consistent.
2. Acidosis. The pH is near normal, although both and PCO2 are clearly abnormal. The approach to evaluating acidosis is chosen because it is generally simpler and more commonly encountered than for an alkalosis.