Gastroenterology
Question 1
A 56-year-old white man with a history of pseudogout and type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of fatigue and weight loss. His family history is significant for diabetes, liver cancer, and arthritis. On examination, a mildly enlarged liver is noted, together with palmar erythema and bilateral knee effusions. Blood chemistry reveals mildly elevated alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) values, total bilirubin is 2.0 mg/dL, international normalized ratio (INR) is 1.95, and ferritin is 2,500 ng/mL (normal, 10 to 200 ng/mL). The treatment most likely to decrease this patient’s risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is which of the following?
a) Ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol)
b) Repeated phlebotomy
c) Penicillamine
d) Deferoxamine
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify modifiable risk factors for HCC in patients with cirrhosis.
This case illustrates the clinical presentation of symptomatic hereditary hemochromatosis (HHC), one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. HHC is a disorder of iron storage, whereby an inappropriate increase in intestinal iron absorption results in deposition of excessive quantities of iron in parenchymal cells, with eventual tissue damage and functional impairment. The liver is usually the first affected organ. Hepatomegaly develops and, when hepatic iron concentration reaches a threshold of 400 µmol/g dry weight, cirrhosis is common. The iron threshold is lower in patients with other risk factors for liver diseases, such as heavy alcohol consumption or chronic hepatitis. Splenomegaly develops in 50% of symptomatic patients. Manifestations of portal hypertension and esophageal varices occur less commonly than in alcoholic cirrhosis. HCC develops in 30% of those with cirrhosis and is the most common cause of death among treated patients. Clinical HHC is only present in the setting of iron overload. The serum ferritin level defines the point at which hemochromatosis is expressing iron overload and treatment should be initiated. Treatment involves removal of mobilizable iron stores. Weekly phlebotomy is usually required for 2 to 3 years. When the transferrin saturation and ferritin level become normal, phlebotomy is performed at the time intervals required to maintain levels in the normal range. Chelating agents, such as deferoxamine, are more expensive and less effective than phlebotomy, but may play a role in HHC when anemia or hypoproteinemia are severe enough to preclude further blood removal. When treatment is initiated before the development of hepatic cirrhosis or diabetes, patients with HHC appear to have a normal life expectancy. In the case example, elevations in INR, bilirubin, and transaminases suggest that liver damage and cirrhosis have already occurred. Once hepatic cirrhosis develops, no treatment is available to alter the risk of HCC.
Question 2
Which of the following approaches has shown to improve liver enzymes and liver histology for nonalcoholic steatohepatitis?
a) Weight loss
b) Control of elevated triglycerides
c) Avoidance of alcohol
d) Control of elevated blood sugar
e) The use of insulin-sensitizing agents
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Understand the treatment of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis.
Weight loss in obese patients, the control of elevated triglycerides and diabetes, and the avoidance of alcohol are recommended. Of several treatment strategies tested in clinical trials, weight loss (at least 5% to 10% of total body weight) seems to be the most effective. Weight loss in obese patients with steatohepatitis has shown to be associated with normalization of liver enzymes and improved hepatic histology. Newer studies are targeting insulin resistance as a potential underlying mechanism of fatty liver. Clinical trials assessing the use of insulin-sensitizing agents developed for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus are currently under way.
Question 3
Which of the following identifies a group of patients at substantial risk of dying from alcoholic hepatitis?
a) Child-Pugh score
b) Discriminant function
c) Model for End-Stage Liver Disease score
d) Milan criteria
e) Ranson criteria
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand the prognosis and treatment of alcoholic hepatitis.
Several studies suggest that steroids improve survival for patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis without gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The definition of severity requires an evaluation of the bilirubin level and the pro time. The so-called discriminant function value identifies a group of patients at substantial risk for dying from alcoholic hepatitis.
Discriminant function:
4.6 (pro time – control [in seconds]) + (serum bilirubin [mg/dL]) = 32
When severely ill patients with a discriminant function score of ≥32 (without GI hemorrhage) are given 40 mg of prednisone daily for 28 days, survival is nearly twice as likely.
Question 4
According to the CDC, in the absence of an outbreak (single case exposure), which of the following contacts should receive hepatitis A postexposure prophylaxis with immune globulin?
a) Household contacts under 12 months of age
b) Office coworkers
c) Sexual contacts 18 to 40 years of age
d) Elementary school contacts
e) All of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Identify and treat those at risk for infection with hepatitis A virus.
Immune globulin provides protection against hepatitis A. Formerly, preexposure prophylaxis was recommended for those who travel internationally to endemic regions, but currently such persons are advised to receive active immunization. Postexposure prophylaxis with immune globulin is recommended for (a) household and sexual contacts under the age of 12 months or over the age of 40 years (for those between 12 months and 40 years, hepatitis A vaccine is preferred); (b) in day care centers (if children in diapers attend) but not to elementary or secondary school contacts unless an outbreak (more than a single case) has been identified; (c) within institutions to contacts only; and (d) in hospitals only if an outbreak occurs. Immune globulin is not recommended for coworkers in offices or factories. Restaurant-exposed persons also may get immune globulin unless the contact was more than 2 weeks previous, in which case no vaccine is recommended. Postexposure prophylaxis is not needed for persons who have been immunized.
Question 5
Which of the following is not an extrahepatic manifestation of hepatitis C?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Porphyria cutanea tarda
c) Cryoglobulinemia
d) Type 2 diabetes
e) Cardiomyopathy
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Understand the extrahepatic manifestations of hepatitis C virus infection.
Cardiomyopathy is not an extrahepatic manifestation of hepatitis C. All other choices can be seen along with the addition of lymphoproliferative disorders and leukocytoclastic vasculitis.
Question 6
Which of the following is associated with a low (<1.1) serumascites albumin gradient (SAAG)?
a) Wilson disease
b) Autoimmune hepatitis
c) Ovarian cancer
d) Budd-Chiari syndrome
e) Nonischemic cardiomyopathy
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the differential diagnosis of ascites based on the SAAG calculation.
Cirrhotic ascites is similar to serum, except it contains less protein. The SAAG is usually >1.1. This ratio is calculated by subtracting the albumin concentration of ascites from that of serum (albumin serum minus albumin ascites). Cardiac ascites will have a similarly high gradient. The SAAG has been established as a clinical valuable test with high specificity to differentiate ascites due to portal hypertension (cirrhosis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, or right heart failure) from other causes of ascites. Low gradients (<1.1) suggest a noncirrhotic (and a noncardiac) cause for ascites, such as malignancy and infection.
Question 7
A 75-year-old man who had open cholecystectomy due to cholecystitis more than 20 years ago underwent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for the treatment of choledocholithiasis. Unfortunately, he has developed post-ERCP pancreatitis and has been admitted to your hospital for
pain control, intravenous fluid therapy, and observation. On the fourth hospital day, he develops fever (39°C) with a rising white blood cell (WBC) count. Blood and urine cultures have been obtained. What is the most appropriate imaging study?
pain control, intravenous fluid therapy, and observation. On the fourth hospital day, he develops fever (39°C) with a rising white blood cell (WBC) count. Blood and urine cultures have been obtained. What is the most appropriate imaging study?
a) Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant and the pancreas
b) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen
c) HIDA scan to assess for bile leak
d) Chest CT with intravenous contrast
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand the complications of acute pancreatitis.
This man has symptoms suggesting complicated acute pancreatitis. A contrast-enhanced CT is indicated to determine the presence of pancreatic necrosis. The presence of necrosis on CT requires prompt evaluation for infection. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) with Gram stain has been shown to be most effective at determining the presence or absence of microorganisms.
Question 8
A 35-year-old obese woman who has been hospitalized for acute pancreatitis for a week starts spiking temperatures and becomes hypotensive. Two days before this acute episode, she underwent a contrast-enhanced CT due to continued severe abdominal pain. The CT revealed an area of nonenhancement in the pancreatic body. After adequate resuscitation in the intensive care unit and stabilization of the patient, what is the appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
a) FNA of the pancreatic necrosis
b) Angiography
c) Magnetic resonance imaging
d) Total parenteral nutrition
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Understand the complications of acute pancreatitis.
The CT scan done 2 days prior to the acute episode had already shown the presence of pancreatic necrosis. The development of fever and hypotension should raise suspicion for infected pancreatic necrosis. FNA of the necrotic material is the best way to detect infection. Intravenous antibiotic therapy would be indicated for infected necrosis.
Question 9
A 21-year-old woman has had recurrent abdominal pain since 3 years of age. She gives a history of similar symptoms in an uncle who died of pancreatic cancer at age 45 years. Plain x-ray films of the abdomen show extensive calcification in the upper abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
a) Celiac sprue
b) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
c) Hereditary pancreatitis
d) Gastric carcinoma
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the presentation and natural history of hereditary pancreatitis.
This woman has the classic presentation of hereditary pancreatitis: acute bouts of abdominal pain starting in childhood with the eventual development of chronic pancreatitis. Her family history is positive for pancreatitis. Patients with hereditary pancreatitis have a fivefold greater risk of pancreatic cancer than the risk in the average population.
Question 10
A 65-year-old man seeks your advice due to pressure from his wife who thought his color has changed to “yellow” for the past 3 weeks. He does not have any history of liver or bile duct disease. He denies abdominal pain, fever, or chills and says that other than mild fatigue, he feels fine. He does not take any medication on a regular basis. On physical examination, he has scleral icterus, appears jaundiced, and has a palpable but nontender gallbladder. Laboratory evaluation shows the following: total bilirubin, 8.9 mg/dL (reference range, 0 to 1.5); alkaline phosphatase, 382 U/L (reference range, 40 to 150), AST, 66 U/L (reference range, 7 to 40); ALT, 92 U/L (reference range, 5 to 50); amylase 23 U/L (reference range, 0 to 137); normal electrolytes; kidney function; and complete blood count. A right upper quadrant ultrasound shows a dilated intrahepatic biliary tree and distended gallbladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Acute cholecystitis
b) Chronic pancreatitis
c) Choledocholithiasis
d) Pancreatic cancer
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the differential diagnosis of painless jaundice.
This man has painless jaundice, which along with a palpable, nontender gallbladder (Courvoisier sign) and his age (over 50 years old) is strongly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. Acute cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, and choledocholithiasis are usually associated with abdominal pain. Although chronic pancreatitis and choledocholithiasis can very rarely present this way, pancreatic cancer is more likely.
Question 11
Achalasia is usually not characterized by which of the following symptoms?
a) Dysphagia for solids and liquids
b) Dysphagia for solids only
c) Bland regurgitation
d) Heartburn
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand the differential diagnosis of dysphagia.
Dysphagia for solids suggests an anatomic (i.e., structural) rather than a functional (i.e., motility) disorder. Dysphagia resulting from a motor source is usually manifested by difficulty with both solids and liquids.
Question 12
Which pill is most commonly associated with esophagitis?
a) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
b) Quinidine
c) Doxycycline
d) Slow-release potassium
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the differential diagnosis of esophagitis.
All these medications are associated with pill-induced esophagitis. However, the most frequent culprit is doxycycline, as it is a widely used antibiotic. Classically, young adults taking doxycycline for acne present with dysphagia and odynophagia because they take their medication either with a minimal amount of water or immediately before bedtime.
Question 13
Which of the following has been associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
a) Noncardiac chest pain
b) Asthma
c) Dental erosion
d) Laryngeal cancer
e) All of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Understand the common findings associated with GERD.
More than 50% of patients with noncardiac chest pain have GERD. Extraesophageal presentations of GERD include damage to the lungs (i.e., asthma) and oropharynx (e.g., hoarseness, vocal cord granulomas, dental erosions, and laryngeal cancer) secondary to high acid reflux.
Question 14
A 65-year-old woman presents to the office with a complaint of a gnawing epigastric pain. She denies bleeding but has a hemoglobin of 10.9. Her most significant risk factor for ulcer disease is
a) Use of a nonselective NSAID
b) Age
c) Presence of Helicobacter pylori infection
d) Use of a cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 inhibitor
e) Cardiac prophylactic-dose aspirin
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the etiologies of peptic ulcer disease.
Helicobacter pylori is the most common cause for ulcer disease— especially duodenal ulcer (70% to 75%). NSAIDs are causative in approximately 25% of ulcer disease. Ulcers increase with age because these two risk factors increase with age. Cardiac prophylactic doses of aspirin are a risk factor but have a low incidence of ulcer disease (1%). COX-2-selective inhibitors (0.5%) have the same ulcer risk as placebo.
Question 15
A 39-year-old man presents with epigastric fullness and discomfort, which worsens following meals. A review of systems is otherwise negative. He is a smoker. There is no prior ulcer disease. The single best diagnostic approach would be:
a) An initial 8-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
b) Immediate upper endoscopy
c) Breath testing for H. pylori and providing treatment if results are positive
d) Empiric antimicrobial treatment of H. pylori
e) Performing a gastric-emptying study
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the treatment approach for uncomplicated dyspepsia.
The most appropriate approach in uncomplicated dyspepsia in this young patient would be H. pylori breath testing. This test-and-treat method is warranted as a cost-effective approach for a young patient with new-onset dyspepsia, as breath testing is noninvasive. A short course of a PPI is a reasonable strategy, but a full 8-week course would not be warranted. No justification ever exists for treating anyone for H. pylori without proof of infection.
Patients younger than 45 to 50 years of age with new-onset dyspepsia without alarm symptoms such as hematemesis, melena, anemia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss do not warrant immediate upper endoscopy, and the incidence of gastric cancer is low. This patient’s symptoms could be related to gastroparesis. However, a gastric-emptying study would not be the best initial diagnostic study.
Question 16
A 34-year-old woman was found to have a duodenal ulcer and H. pylori on upper endoscopy with biopsies and was treated with combination lansoprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (Prevpac) for 10 days. She completed
therapy a few days ago but has persistent epigastric discomfort. She is concerned that her ulcer is still there. Select the most appropriate statement that applies to her case.
therapy a few days ago but has persistent epigastric discomfort. She is concerned that her ulcer is still there. Select the most appropriate statement that applies to her case.
a) Her H. pylori has not been fully eradicated.
b) Her dyspeptic symptoms might persist despite eradication.
c) An immediate H. pylori breath test could be repeated to facilitate rescue therapy, if positive.
d) Quadruple therapy with a bismuth and tetracycline combination should be initiated to increase the likelihood of clearance.
e) Performing fecal antigen testing for H. pylori after 2 months is an excellent way of promptly evaluating treatment failures.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand the treatment of peptic ulcer disease.
Dyspeptic symptoms frequently may persist long after the course of H. pylori eradication therapy. Symptoms, therefore, cannot help to determine if eradication has been achieved. Breath testing would not be accurate this soon after eradication therapy due to the decreased sensitivity from the use of antibiotics and a PPI. Although confirmation of eradication by all testing is most reliable 4 weeks after treatment, fecal antigen testing has the advantage of being a more prompt test to determine treatment failure and can be used as soon as 7 days after the completion of therapy. Quadruple therapy is appropriate as a first-, second-, or even a third-line option. However, in this recently treated patient, it should be initiated only when it has been determined that eradication was unsuccessful.
Question 17
A 41-year-old male patient is seen in the emergency room with hematemesis. He smokes, uses NSAIDs on occasion, and has a history of a prior bleeding ulcer. He is otherwise healthy on no medications. The patient is tachycardic and orthostatic on examination. His systolic blood pressure is 90 and hemoglobin is 8.9 g. Gastroenterology consultation has been requested.
Which is the most accurate statement?
a) He should be medically stabilized and then undergo immediate endoscopy.
b) He should be started on an intravenous PPI and monitored for signs of persistent bleeding. Endoscopy should be performed if symptoms persist or worsen.
c) If initial endoscopy fails to stop his bleeding, surgical intervention is needed.
d) Intravenous PPI therapy and eradication of H. pylori may be more helpful in this patient than endoscopic management.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Understand the treatment of peptic ulcer disease.
This is an unstable patient with risk factors for adverse outcomes with ulcer disease. Medical stabilization is most appropriate, then endoscopy. Intravenous PPI therapy and H. pylori eradication are beneficial but not as helpful in this acute bleed as is prompt endoscopic intervention. Rebleeding after initial endoscopic management occurs in 20% to 25% of cases. Repeat endoscopy is very successful, and combined with the use of intravenous PPIs, surgery is needed significantly less often. In addition, interventional radiology procedures in many centers have essentially replaced surgery for intractable GI bleeding.
Question 18
A 57-year-old woman with a history of morbid obesity, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis presents for a physical examination. She takes a lipid-lowering agent as her only medication. Her COX-2-selective inhibitor was taken off the market a few months ago, and she wonders what can be done for her joint pain. She has been unable to work due to her arthritic pain and states that money is limited right now. She has no GI complaints at this time and has no history of ulcer.
What further management is the most appropriate?
a) Start back on an available COX-2-selective inhibitor
b) Test and treat for H. pylori
c) Start on an NSAID and prescribe a PPI
d) Start on an NSAID and caution her to alert you to any dyspeptic symptoms or bleeding
e) Start back on an available COX-2-selective inhibitor and begin a PPI
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the GI side effects of anti-inflammatory medications.
This is a low-risk patient who should do well with simply starting an NSAID. Starting on a COX-2-selective inhibitor is reasonable, but cost is a concern. Test and treat for H. pylori in this asymptomatic patient is not the appropriate management. Prophylaxis with a PPI and NSAID has an equivalent ulcer risk to that of a COX-2-selective inhibitor but may be more costly. Neither of these regimens is warranted in this low-risk patient. Because NSAID use is so widespread, the economic consequences of universal prophylaxis are prohibitive. Therefore, prophylaxis is warranted only in high-risk patients, such as those who are older than 60 years, have had prior peptic ulcer disease, or are taking a high dosage of or more than one NSAID, use corticosteroids or anticoagulants concurrently with an NSAID, or have a serious systemic disorder. A COX-2-selective inhibitor and PPI is the least appropriate therapy in this low-risk patient.
For the cases in questions 19 through 22, choose the appropriate recommendation from the lettered list:
Question 19
A single 3-mm rectal adenoma is found on flexible sigmoidoscopy in a 32-year-old woman.
a) Colonoscopy and polypectomy
b) Yearly fecal occult blood test and flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
c) Colonoscopy at age 40 years
d) Colonoscopy in 5 years
e) Colonoscopy in 3 years
f) Colonoscopy in 1 year
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Understand screening guidelines for the prevention of colorectal cancer.
Until further studies are performed, all patients with an adenoma detected by flexible sigmoidoscopy should undergo a full colonoscopy to detect synchronous, more proximal neoplasms, as well as polypectomy of all detected polyps.
Question 20
A 62-year-old man with an 18-year history of pancolitis just underwent colonoscopy without any changes of dysplasia seen.
a) Colonoscopy and polypectomy
b) Yearly fecal occult blood test and flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
c) Colonoscopy in 10 years
d) Colonoscopy in 5 years
e) Colonoscopy in 3 years
f) Colonoscopy in 1 year
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is f.
Objective: Understand screening guidelines for the prevention of colorectal cancer.
All patients with ulcerative pancolitis who have had the diagnosis for more than 8 years are at increased risk for colorectal dysplasia and cancer. Yearly colonoscopy with four-quadrant biopsy every 10 cm to detect dysplasia is indicated.
Question 21
A 55-year-old woman has a lifelong history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and had a colonoscopy at the age of 50.
a) Colonoscopy now
b) Yearly fecal occult blood test and flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
c) Colonoscopy in 5 years
d) Colonoscopy in 3 years
e) Colonoscopy in 1 year
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b or c.
Objective: Understand screening guidelines for the prevention of colorectal cancer.
Patients with IBS and no risk factors are at average risk for colorectal cancer. Colonoscopy every 10 years (or a flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years or annual fecal occult blood testing) is an appropriate screening method for patients at average risk.