Endocrinology
Question 1
A patient being screened for intermittent diarrhea has a T4 (total) value of 19.6 µg/dL (normal, 5.0 to 10.5). No other features of hyperthyroidism are present; no goiter is present. A T4U test is elevated at 2.01 (normal, 0.8 to 1.20), whereas the T3RU test is subnormal at 15% (normal, 25% to 35%). The free thyroxine index is calculated to be 9.8 (normal, 5.0 to 10.5). What single test would be most helpful in delineating the patient’s thyroid status?
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b) Thyroid receptor antibodies
c) Serum T3
d) Serum FT4 equilibrium dialysis
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is a.
Objective: Identify role of laboratory testing in diagnosing hypothyroidism.
The aim of the question is to help gain understanding of the role of free (nonprotein bound) thyroid hormone in regulating TSH secretion. The hypothalamo-pituitary unit “reads” the free hormone level, not the total hormone level, which is subject to changes owing to alterations in protein binding (thyroxine-binding globulin, thyroid-binding prealbumin, albumin, or conditions that may interfere with binding).
In practice, the free thyroxine index can be calculated from total T4 and an estimate of protein binding (T4U or T3RU; T4U measures binding directly, whereas T3RU provides an index of unbound hormone). Automated FT4 assays are replacing these more indirect indices; the gold standard, FT4 by equilibrium dialysis, is available in some reference laboratories but is rarely needed. Thus, serum TSH in this patient should provide the best indicator of thyroid function status and is independent from thyroid hormone protein-binding abnormalities.
Question 2
A female patient with primary hypothyroidism has been stable (normal TSH) on replacement LT4 (dose, 1.6 µg/kg of body weight) for several years. On annual follow-up, the following laboratory tests are obtained: T4, 14.1 µg/dL (normal, 5.0 to 10.5) and TSH, 23.4 µU/mL (normal, 0.4 to 5.5). She saw a gastroenterologist 6 months previously for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug-related gastritis and takes an iron preparation and occasional antacids. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Malabsorption of LT4 owing to concomitant use of antacids and iron
b) Progressive loss of endogenous thyroid function
c) Development of thyroid hormone resistance
d) Poor compliance this past year, with attempt to “catch up” with excessive LT4 intake recently
e) None of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Identify time lag in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
Although TSH secretion may be acutely altered by stress, illness, or drugs, the major regulation is based on the integrated thyroid hormone exposure over the preceding 2 to 5 weeks. Although iron preparations and aluminumcontaining compounds can interfere with T4 absorption, the elevated serum T4 level argues against this notion. Similarly, a progressive loss of thyroid function would be expected to lead to low or low-normal T4 values. Although acquired thyroid hormone resistance may occur hypothetically, no clinical descriptions of such disorders exist. The correct answer is not a rare occurrence: Patients often want to please their health care provider, even if it means not being perfectly honest on occasion.
Question 3
You are asked to see a 75-year-old white man who was admitted to the psychiatric ward with a diagnosis of delirium. The history obtained from the wife revealed that he was well until 6 months before admission. He has had a 30-lb weight loss with a poor appetite since then. No history is present of any medication, with recent investigations involving radiocontrast media, goiter, or neck discomfort. No family history of thyroid disease is present. On physical examination, he is afebrile; he looks cachectic but is not pigmented; no features of infiltrative eye changes are present; and the thyroid gland is prolapsed, but may be just palpable on swallowing. The pulse rate is irregular at 120 beats/minute. The serum T4 is 19.7 µg/dL (normal, 5.0 to 10.5) with a serum TSH <0.02 µU/mL (normal, 0.4 to 5.5).
The next step in diagnosis is to order
a) Serum T3
b) 24-Hour radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)
c) 24-Hour RAIU and scan
d) Thyroid-stimulating antibodies
e) Thyroid microsomal (TPO) antibodies
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Identify appropriate workup for patient with thyrotoxicosis.
This question reinforces the clinical presentation of elderly patients with thyrotoxicosis and their management. Although weight loss despite a generous appetite is characteristic in the younger adult, anorexia is not an uncommon finding in the elderly. Cachexia in an “apathetic” patient should be considered. (Concomitant Addison disease in a patient with known thyroid autoimmunity is a “distractor” in the current case presentation; the lack of pigmentation was intended to get the reader back on focus.) A cardiac dysrhythmia or congestive heart failure may be the major feature(s). The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group is toxic multinodular goiter (sometimes iodide induced), but the absence of a goiter may be seen in up to 25% of elderly patients (5% in young adults).
Serum T3 may be of academic interest (and occasionally a higher T4:T3 ratio may help discriminate thyroiditis or toxic multinodular goiter from Graves hyperthyroidism), but it is generally reserved for cases in which total T4 and FT4 values are normal. Thyroid-stimulating antibodies are of minor value in ruling out Graves disease (usually a positive family history is obtained), but this diagnosis can be inferred from an elevated RAIU and diffuse scan order. Thyroid microsomal antibodies are a less expensive but less specific surrogate for Graves disease. The RAIU is necessary to discriminate thyroid hyperfunction (autonomous nodule[s], receptor antibody, TSH, or human chorionic gonadotropin driven) from subacute or silent thyroiditis, iatrogenic, or factitious causes. (Recent exposure to radiocontrast media or iodine-containing drugs or pregnancy may preclude its use, however.) A scan is of particular value when the clinician is unsure of the size and nature of the thyroid gland.
Question 4
The above 75-year-old man is diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis. He has a known history of diabetes and hypertension. He is still tachycardic. Management of the patient in the preceding question should include all of the following, except
a) β-Blockers
b) Digoxin
c) Coumadin
d) Propylthiouracil
e) Stress doses of glucocorticoids
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is e.
Objective: Identify appropriate management of patient with thyrotoxicosis.
β-Blockers and propylthiouracil are helpful as primary therapy for hyperthyroidism in the elderly. Propylthiouracil is initiated only after the diagnosis is confirmed by a radioactive iodine uptake (and scan, if necessary). Radioactive iodine therapy may cause a transient worsening (radiation thyroiditis) of the hyperthyroidism and is often postponed in elderly patients until euthyroidism is attained (and antithyroid medication transiently withdrawn for 2 to 3 days before 131I treatment). β-Blockers and digoxin are helpful in controlling the heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Patient has a CHADS2 score of 3, and Coumadin is indicated in preventing embolic consequences of atrial fibrillation. The only drug not indicated without more data (the patient was not in “thyroid storm”) is the glucocorticoid.
Question 5
A 55-year-old businessman comes to your office complaining of fatigue. He denies any weight change but has nocturia one or two times a night. His 75-year-old mother is a diabetic; his father died of premature heart disease at 60 years of age. He has a history of hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide, 50 mg per day. Physical examination reveals that he is 50% above his ideal body weight; his blood pressure (BP) is 135/90 mmHg but is otherwise unremarkable. Fasting plasma glucose is 120 mg/dL; sodium, 143 mEq/L; potassium, 3.1 mEq/mL; chloride, 100 mEq/L; bicarbonate, 26 mEq/L; blood urea nitrogen (BUN), 12 mg/dL; and creatinine, 1.1 mg/dL. HgbA1c is 6.0% (normal range, 4% to 6%).
Which of the following is true?
a) The normal HgbA1c rules out diabetes.
b) An OGTT is not indicated.
c) Risk factors for diabetes mellitus (DM) include his family history, obesity, hypertension, and hypokalemia.
d) His hypokalemia need not be corrected before retesting his plasma glucose level.
e) Exercise should be avoided due to his family history of heart disease.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the diagnostic criteria for DM.
Risk factors for DM include family history, obesity, hypertension, and hypokalemia. The diagnostic criteria for the diagnosis of DM include
Hemoglobin A1C ≥6.5%
Fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL
2-Hour plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL during an 75-g oral glucose tolerance test
Symptoms of hyperglycemia, hyperglycemic crisis AND random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL
Diagnostic criteria 1 to 3 above should be confirmed with repeat testing on a separate occasion.
Question 6
The patient’s sister, who is visiting from out of town, is also known to have type 2 DM and hypertension. She is treated with glyburide, 10 mg twice daily, and her fasting blood glucose averages 160 mg/dL, with her HgbA1c at 8.8%. She seeks your counsel. Physical examination is unremarkable except for moderate obesity. Fasting glucose is 200 mg/dL; BUN, 25 mg/dL; and creatinine, 1.9 mg/dL. Electrolytes and liver enzymes are normal.
Which of the following would be reasonable recommendations in addition to improving her dietary habits and exercise regimen?
a) Discontinue glyburide
b) Add metformin, 500 mg twice daily after meals
c) Add acarbose, 25 mg three times daily
d) Add rosiglitazone, 4 mg daily
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Glyburide should not be discontinued but could be reduced. With an elevated creatinine, metformin should not be prescribed. One should start a patient on acarbose (Precose), slowly and gradually increasing dosage. Rosiglitazone could be used, starting at 4 mg daily.
Question 7
A 40-year-old white woman with a history of severe asthma and Hashimoto thyroiditis reports 2 months of fatigue, anorexia, nausea, weight loss, and myalgia. Her examination is remarkable only for a BP of 98/60 mmHg and a pulse of 98 beats/minute without orthostasis. She shows no hyperpigmentation. Sodium is 130 mEq/L; potassium, 4.5 mEq/L; chloride, 105 mEq/L; and bicarbonate, 24 mEq/L. ACTH stimulation test shows cortisol at 5.8 µg/dL at T 0 minute and 13.2 µg/dL at T 60 minutes.
Which of the following is correct?
a) The most likely cause of her adrenal insufficiency is Addison disease.
b) The most likely cause of her adrenal insufficiency is prior exogenous corticosteroid use.
c) She does not have adrenal insufficiency because her ACTH stimulation test is normal.
d) She will require treatment with prednisone, 7.5 mg daily, and fludrocortisone, 0.1 mg daily.
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is b.
Objective: Understand the diagnostic features of adrenal insufficiency.
This case illustrates the differences between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency in clinical presentation and treatment. In secondary adrenal insufficiency, the renin-aldosterone axis is intact; therefore, hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis are not seen, and fludrocortisone is not required for treatment.
Question 8
You are treating a 58-year-old man with hypopituitarism following radiation therapy for craniopharyngioma. He is taking hydrocortisone sodium succinate, 15 mg daily; levothyroxine, 0.15 mg daily; and testosterone injections, 200 mg every 2 weeks. He feels weak and tired. His examination is remarkable only for a BP of 95/58 mmHg. Sodium is 131 mEq/L; potassium, 4.8 mEq/L; TSH, 0.23 µIU/mL; and FTI, 9.0 µg/dL.
Which of the following would you do next?
a) Decrease levothyroxine
b) Increase testosterone
c) Add fludrocortisone
d) Increase hydrocortisone
e) Begin desmopressin acetate
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the treatment of iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency.
This case illustrates secondary adrenal insufficiency and inadequate glucocorticoid replacement. Physiologic hydrocortisone replacement is 20 to 30 mg daily. No data suggest the need for desmopressin or increased testosterone. Levothyroxine doses should not be adjusted by the TSH in secondary disease.
Question 9
A 37-year-old woman presents to you for evaluation of weight gain and hirsutism of several years duration. Her gynecologist has prescribed an oral contraceptive for oligomenorrhea. She has noted easy bruising but no muscle weakness. On examination, she weighs 240 pounds, with central obesity. BP is 144/92 mmHg. She has significant facial hair, mild acne, and multiple thin whitish striae on her abdomen, and a small buffalo hump. Her proximal muscle strength is normal. A random glucose level is 183 mg/dL, and potassium is 3.9 mEq/L. Her gynecologist sends you the results of an overnight dexamethasone suppression test (ODST) (morning cortisol of 6.2 µg/dL) and a random ACTH level (25 pg/mL).
Which of the following would you do next?
a) Order MRI of the pituitary
b) Order CT of the adrenals
c) Obtain a 24-hour urine free cortisol
d) Perform a high-dose (8 mg) dexamethasone suppression test
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the diagnostic evaluation of Cushing Syndrome.
Generally, the 24-hour urine free cortisol is the best screening test; the 1-mg ODST is easier to perform but has more false-positive results, including increased cortisol-binding globulin owing to the estrogen in oral contraceptives. Radiographic imaging is not indicated until the diagnosis is established biochemically.
Question 10
A 50-year-old woman on chronic warfarin therapy for a previous pulmonary embolus was recently started on an acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)-containing analgesic for joint pain. She suddenly developed severe abdominal pain, and by the time she was taken to the emergency department, she was partially obtunded, hypotensive, and pale. Hemoglobin was found to be 8 mg/dL.
What would you do next?
a) Check international normalized ratio
b) Do a 1-hour ACTH stimulation test
c) Administer intravenous saline and dexamethasone
d) Do a blood type and match
e) Obtain an abdominal CT
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is c.
Objective: Understand the clinical presentation of acute adrenal hemorrhage.
This patient likely has adrenal insufficiency from an adrenal hemorrhage through the potentiation of warfarin by ASA. Intravenous fluids and dexamethasone can be lifesaving; then other options can be considered. Dexamethasone does not cross react with cortisol in the radioimmune assay. All choices are reasonable, but answer c should be performed first.
Question 11
A 52-year-old woman is referred to you by her urologist for a 3-cm right adrenal mass detected on abdominal CT. Her weight has been stable, and she has generally felt well. She has not noted hirsutism, acne, proximal myopathy, or easy bruising, but she has felt depressed lately. She also has had diaphoresis and occasional headaches but no palpitations. Her last menstrual period was 6 months earlier. She has a 2-year history of DM that is well controlled by diet. Her last mammogram 8 months earlier was negative, and no breast masses are present. She smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. BP is 135/85 mmHg; pulse, 95 beats/minute; and weight, 174 pounds. She has no buffalo hump, supraclavicular fat, or abdominal striae. Proximal muscle strength is normal. Stool is negative for occult blood. Complete blood cell count and chemistry profile are normal.
Which of the following would you do next?
a) Obtain a 24-hour urinary calcium excretion
b) Determine the aldosterone-to-PRA ratio
c) Obtain serum DHEAS and androstenedione levels
d) Obtain a 24-hour urine collection for catecholamines and metanephrines
e) All of the above
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the evaluation of an incidentally found adrenal mass.
Biochemical testing should be influenced by clinical findings. Even if no evidence of hormone production is apparent through history and physical examination, a biochemical screening for pheochromocytoma should nonetheless be done. A 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test should also be done on all patients to exclude subclinical Cushing syndrome.
Question 12
A 68-year-old man presents for evaluation of a 2.5-cm adrenal mass. History and physical examination are negative for malignancy and overproduction of any adrenal hormones. A biochemical evaluation for pheochromocytoma is negative. No data are present regarding CT attenuation value, and MRI opposed-phase imaging is not available.
Which of the following would you recommend?
a) Surgery
b) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy of the mass
c) Conventional MRI
d) Follow-up CT in 3 to 6 months
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the evaluation of an incidentally found adrenal mass.
Surgery is not recommended for incidental adrenal masses unless they are large (>4 to 6 cm). A FNA biopsy can be diagnostic but should be used only when an immediate answer is needed and an experienced radiologist is available. FNA biopsy can diagnose metastatic disease but cannot always distinguish adrenal carcinoma from adenoma. Conventional MRI cannot distinguish metastasis from adenoma; only opposed-phase imaging (chemical-shift imaging) can do this. When CT or MRI cannot provide a definite diagnosis (metastasis versus adenoma), follow-up CT is indicated.
Question 13
A 25-year-old shoe salesman reports frontal headaches for 6 months. His free thyroxine (FT4) level is 0.4 ng/dL µg/dL (normal, 0.7 to 2.0 ng/dL), and his TSH level is 1.41 mIU/mL (normal, 0.4 to 5.5 mIU/mL). He also reports some loss of energy, leg cramps, and dry skin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
a) Start levothyroxine 50 µg every day on empty stomach
b) Check antimicrosomal antibody
c) Repeat thyroid function study in 3 months to see if there is any change
d) Obtain early morning cortisol, testosterone, LH, FSH, PRL, and IGF-1 levels
e) Utilize thyroid ultrasonography
View Answer
Answer and Discussion
The answer is d.
Objective: Understand the diagnostic evaluation of hypothyroidism.
The low T4 along with an inappropriately normal TSH level in an individual who is clinically hypothyroid should prompt a search for hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction most commonly secondary to a pituitary tumor. Treatment of hypothyroidism in a patient with adrenal insufficiency may result in worsening of adrenal insufficiency symptoms due to an increase in metabolism of an already low cortisol level and should be approached with caution.